Central Bank of India Clerk (First Shift) Exam. 2011 Solved Paper
English Language
(Exam Held on 13-2-2011)
Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
The Sun, while going on his daily rounds saw a princess and fell in love with her. Whenever he could slip away from the heavens he would take human form and go down to the princess to spend some time with her. The princess too became quite fond of him and would wait for him to come. One day the Sun decided to send her a blood-red ruby as a token of his love for her. He put the gem in a silk bag, and calling a crow that was flying past, asked the bird to deliver the gem to his beloved. Crows had milky white feathers in those days and it was considered auspicious if a crow came anywhere near you. So the Sun was pleased that he had found a crow to deliver the gem. As the crow sped through the sky with the silken bag, the aroma of food lured him. Looking down the crow saw that a wedding feast was in progress, and immediately it was distracted from its mission. Food was one thing it could never resist !
Alighting on a tree nearby, it hung the bag on a twig and went off to find some food. While the crow was feasting, a merchant passing by saw the bag on the tree, and knocked it down with a pole. When he opened the bag and saw its contents he almost swooned in joy. Quickly pocketing the ruby, he filled the bag with dry cow dung that was lying there, and then deftly returned the bag to the branch. It was all done so quickly that the crow missed all the action. After having its fill, it flew up to the tree, and picking up the bag took it to the person it was intended for. The princess was in the garden. When the crow gave her the bag, she took it eagerly, knowing that it was from the Sun. But when she saw its contents she reeled back in shock and anger. Believing that it was the Sun’s way of telling her that he did not care for her, she flung the bag away, rushed to her palace, and never came out again. When the Sun learnt of what had happened he was furious.
So great was his anger that when he turned his scorching gaze on the crow, its feathers were burned black. Its feathers have been black ever since. The ruby did not stay with the man who stole it. It fell out of his pocket and rolled into a deep pit. Men have been trying to dig it out ever since. Many precious stones have been found in the process, making Myanmar one of the richest sources of rubies and sapphires, but the ruby that the Sun sent to the princess is yet to be found.
1. What did the Sun send for the princess as a token of his love ?
(A) He sent her the crow
(B) He sent her dry cow dung
(C) He sent her a red ruby
(D) He gifted her the city of Myanmar
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
2. Why did the princess fling the gift away ?
(A) She did not like rubies
(B) The crow was known to bring bad luck
(C) She had found cow dung in the bag
(D) She thought the Sun was playing a cruel joke on her
(E) She had wanted the Sun to personally deliver it
Ans : (C)
3. What led to the discovery of precious stones in Myanmar ?
(A) Humans discovered the stones in their search for the lost ruby
(B) The crow spread the news of the lost ruby
(C) The princess went in search of the lost ruby and discovered other precious stones
(D) The merchant went in search of the ruby that fell off his pocket
(E) The merchant’s clumsiness led to the discovery of precious stones
Ans : (A)
4. While on its way to the princess, the crow was distracted by—
(A) The merchant calling out to him
(B) The wedding that was taking place below
(C) The ruby that the Sun sent for the princess
(D) The temptation of the smell of food
(E) The huge crowd at the wedding
Ans : (D)
5. Why did the Sun send his gift for the princess along with the crow?
(A) The princess loved crows
(B) The crow was the only bird available at the time
(C) The crow was considered to be an auspicious bird
(D) The crow knew where the princess lived
(E) The Sun trusted the crow
Ans : (C)
6. The joy of the merchant on finding the ruby was short lived because—
(A) He did not succeed in stealing the ruby
(B) The ruby fell out of his pocket
(C) The crow returned just in time and caught him red handed
(D) He soon discovered many more precious stones
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
7. How did the crow get its black colour ?
(A) The crow was punished by the Sun for its clumsiness
(B) The crow was burned black by the scorching gaze of the angry Sun
(C) The crow was not considered auspicious any more
(D) The crow was cursed by the merchant
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
8. What could be an appropriate title for the story ?
(A) The Careless Black Crow
(B) Myanmar and its Mineral Riches
(C) The Sun and the Princess
(D) The Depressed Princess
(E) The Sun and the Ruby
Ans : (C)
9. What was the crow’s mission ?
(A) To deliver the gift to the princess
(B) To attend the wedding
(C) To make the Sun angry
(D) To keep the princess in her palace
(E) To protect the princess from the harmful Sun
Ans : (A)
10. What message did the princess get after opening the bag ?
(A) That the Sun truly loved her
(B) That the crow was an evil bird
(C) That the crow was playing a joke on her
(D) That the Sun did not love her anymore
(E) That the cow dung was a token of the Sun’s love for her
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
11. Token
(A) Symbol
(B) Insurance
(C) Slip
(D) Assurance
(E) Investment
Ans : (A)
12. Deftly
(A) Skillfully
(B) Blindly
(C) Eagerly
(D) Rightfully
(E) Innocently
Ans : (A)
13. Auspicious
(A) Religious
(B) Lucky
(C) Fulfilling
(D) Charming
(E) Normal
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
14. Scorching
(A) Cool
(B) Heated
(C) Warm
(D) Silent
(E) Composed
Ans : (A)
15. Furious
(A) Beaming
(B) Angry
(C) Forgiving
(D) Calm
(E) Sulking
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 16–25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e., ‘No error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
16. When we (A) / reached the shops, (B) / we find that (C) / they were all closed. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
17. Poor people (A) / has no money (B) / therefore they cannot afford (C) / proper medical facilities. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
18. The course is for (A) / anyone who is interested (B) / in learning (C) / about computers. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
19. We were surprised (A) / that she participated (B) / at the performance (C) / held at NCPA. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
20. As soon as (A) / I getting my (B) / first salary (C) / I spent all my money. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
21. The principal (A) / introducing me (B) / to some of her (C) / teaching staff. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
22. The doctors said that (A) / he was making good progress (B) / and would not (C) / need an operation. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)
23. Instead of (A) / to buy books, (B) / I borrow them (C) / from the library. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
24. By the times (A) / we reached the classroom, (B) / the lecture had (C) / already begun. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
25. The Indian government (A) / should make sure that (B) / men and women are (C) / given equal opportunities. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
26. I was annoyed …… John for arriving late.
(A) on
(B) about
(C) by
(D) for
(E) with
Ans : (E)
27. We are …… the possibility of buying our own house.
(A) judging
(B) initiating
(C) threatening
(D) applying
(E) considering
Ans : (E)
28. The student did not pay …… to the instructions that were given to her in class.
(A) ear
(B) awareness
(C) notice
(D) attention
(E) closure
Ans : (D)
29. The young boy was unhurt …… for a minor injury to his knee.
(A) less
(B) except
(C) also
(D) just
(E) while
Ans : (B)
30. There is …… chance of seeing her again …… she leaves.
(A) perhaps, when
(B) also, as
(C) little, before
(D) full, therefore
(E) more, after
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 31–35) In each question below four words which are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D) have been printed, of which, one word may be wrongly spelt. The letter of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt, mark (E) i.e. “All Correct” as the answer.
31. (A) Accept
(B) Reciept
(C) Frequent
(D) Gesture
(E) All Correct
Ans : (B)
32. (A) Justise
(B) Practice
(C) Menace
(D) Variance
(E) All Correct
Ans : (A)
33. (A) Complaint
(B) Alerted
(C) Cheated
(D) Hunged
(E) All Correct
Ans : (D)
34. (A) Remorse
(B) Noble
(C) Upsurge
(D) Incline
(E) All Correct
Ans : (E)
35. (A) Blister
(B) Warrant
(C) Arrest
(D) Mannual
(E) All Correct
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 36–40) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
1. At first he got scared, but then he thought, “I have never worshipped her that is why I am not able to get anything from my land.”
2. One day unable to tolerate the summer heat, he went to rest under a big banyan tree.
3. He rushed to his village and placed his humble offering of milk in a bowl before the snake.
4. Vishnu Raman was a poor Brahmin and a farmer by profession.
5. The next day when he returned, he was rewarded with a gold coin in the bowl he left behind.
6. Just as he was preparing to lie down he saw a huge Cobra swaying with his hood open.
36. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans : (A)
37. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 3
(E) 5
Ans : (B)
38. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 2
(D) 1
(E) 4
Ans : (D)
39. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 6
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
(E) 5
Ans : (C)
40. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Once upon a time there lived a peacock and a tortoise in close proximity and they became the best of friends. The peacock lived on a tree on the …(41)… of a stream which was the home of the tortoise. It was a daily …(42)… for the peacock to dance near the stream after he had a drink of water. He would display his great plumage for the amusement of his friend. One unfortunate day, a bird-catcher who was on the …(43)… caught the peacock and was about to take him away to the market. The unhappy bird begged his captor to allow him to bid his friend the tortoise good-bye, as it would be the …(44)… time he would see him. The bird-catcher gave in to his request and took him to the tortoise. The tortoise was in tears to see his friend held …(45)….
The tortoise asked the birdcatcher to let the peacock go; but he laughed at the request, saying that it was his means of livelihood. The tortoise then said, “If I give you an expensive present, will you let my friend go ?” “Certainly,” answered the bird-catcher. Whereupon, the tortoise …(46)… into the water and in a few seconds came up with a handsome pearl, which he presented to the bird-catcher. This was beyond the man’s expectations, and he let the peacock go immediately. A short time after, the bird-catcher came back and told the tortoise that he thought he had not paid enough for the release of his friend, and …(47)…, that unless a match to the pearl was obtained for him, he would catch the peacock again. The tortoise, who had already …(48)… his friend to shift to a distant jungle on being set free, was greatly …(49)… by the greed of the bird - catcher. “Well,” said the tortoise, “if you insist on having another pearl like the one I gave you, give it back to me and I will fish you an exact match for it.” The greediness of the bird-catcher prevented his reasoning and he …(50)… gave the pearl to the clever tortoise. The tortoise swam out with it saying, “I am no fool to give you another pearl, you’re greediness has left you with nothing.
41. (A) fence
(B) brim
(C) banks
(D) base
(E) outlet
Ans : (C)
42. (A) fact
(B) lifestyle
(C) phenomenon
(D) adventure
(E) routine
Ans : (C)
43. (A) prowl
(B) guard
(C) rounds
(D) duty
(E) alert
Ans : (B)
44. (A) right
(B) last
(C) perfect
(D) appropriate
(E) justified
Ans : (B)
45. (A) captive
(B) custody
(C) affectionately
(D) badly
(E) carelessly
Ans : (A)
46. (A) collapsed
(B) dived
(C) sunk
(D) drowned
(E) slipped
Ans : (B)
47. (A) wished
(B) secured
(C) contemplated
(D) debated
(E) threatened
Ans : (E)
48. (A) advised
(B) left
(C) disowned
(D) excluded
(E) wanted
Ans : (A)
49. (A) aware
(B) enraged
(C) superstitious
(D) touched
(E) tolerant
Ans : (B)
50. (A) deftly
(B) clumsily
(C) selfishly
(D) affectionately
(E) promptly
Ans : (E)
Central Bank of India PO Exam Paper 2010
Computer Knowledge
(Exam Held on 25-07-2010)
1. If a word is typed that is not in Word’s dictionary, a____________wavy underline
appears below the word.
(A) red
(B) green
(C) blue
(D) black
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
2. The____________button on the quick access Toolbar allows you to cancel your recent
commands or actions.
(A) Search
(B) Cut
(C) Document
(D) Undo
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
3. In Excel, any set of characters containing a letter , hyphen, or space is considered—
(A) a formula
(B) text
(C) a name
(D) a title
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
4. ____________Software allows users to perform calculations on rows and columns of
data.
(A) Word processing
(B) Presentation graphics
(C) Database Management Systems
(D) Electronic Spreadsheet
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
5. A ____________represent approximately one billion memory locations.
(A) kilobyte
(B) megabyte
(C) gigabyte
(D) terabyte
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
6. ____________cells involves creating a single cell by combining two or more selected
cells.
(A) Formatting
(B) Merging
(C) Embedding
(D) Splitting
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
7. The operating system is the most common type of____________software.
(A) communication
(B) application
(C) system
(D) word-processing
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
8. When you quickly press and releaes the left mouse button twice , you are—
(A) Primary-clicking
(B) pointing
(C) Double-clicking
(D) Secondary-clicking
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
9. The horizontal and vertical lines on a worksheet are called—
(A) cells
(B) sheets
(C) block lines
(D) gridlines
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
10. To delete an incorrect character in a document, ____________ to erase to the right of
the insertion point.
(A) press the left mouse key
(B) double-click the right mouse key
(C) press the BACKSPACE key
(D) press the delete key
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
11. The operating system does all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) provide a way for the user to interact with the computer.
(B) manage the central processing unit (CPU).
(C) manage memory and storage.
(D) enable users to perform a specific task such as document editing.
Ans : (D)
12. During the boot process, the____________looks for the system files.
(A) CD
B. BIOS
C. CPU
D. DVD
Ans : (B)
13. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.
(A) GUIs
(B) Icons
(C) Menus
(D) Windows
Ans : (C)
14. ____________ is the ability of an operating system to control the activities of multiple
programs at the same time.
(A) Multitasking
(B) Streamlining
(C) Multiuser
(D) Simulcasting
Ans : (A)
15. The unique signal, generated by a device, that tells the operating system that it is in
need of immediate attention is called an:
(A) action.
(B) event.
(C) interrupt.
(D) activity.
Ans : (C)
16. The operating system controls access to the processor by assigning a(n) ____________
to each task requiring the processor’s attention.
(A) CPU
(B) slice of time
(C) stack
(D) event
Ans : (B)
17. The blocks of code, included in the operating system, that software applications
interact with are known as:
(A) application programming interfaces (APIs).
(B) complimentary metal-oxide conductors (CMOS).
(C) device drivers.
(D) bootstrap loaders.
Ans : (A)
18. MS-DOS is a ____________ operating system.
(A) point-and-click
(B) user-friendly
(C) command-driven
(D) Mac
Ans : (C)
19. An interrupt handler is a(n):
(A) location in memory that keeps track of recently generated interrupts.
(B) peripheral device.
(C) utility program.
(D) special numeric code that indicates the priority of a request.
Ans : (D)
20. A spooler is a(n):
(A) location in memory that maintains the contents of a document until it prints out.
(B) print job.
(C) program that coordinates the print jobs that are waiting to print.
(D) message sent from the printer to the operating system when a print job is completed.
Ans : (C)
21. Virtual memory is typically located:
(A) on a floppy disk.
(B) in the CPU.
(C) in a flash card.
(D) on the hard drive.
Ans : (D)
22. The purpose of a swap (or page) file is to:
(A) maintain pages of documents that are being spooled to the printer.
(B) hold a program’s data or instructions in virtual memory when it can’t fit in RAM.
(C) prevent thrashing in a multitasking environment.
(D) allow multiple print jobs to print their pages out simultaneously.
Ans : (B)
23. The definition of thrashing is:
(A) swapping data between virtual memory and RAM too frequently.
(B) insufficient hard disk space.
(C) too many processors being managed by the operating system.
(D) inaccurate information stored in the registry.
Ans : (A)
24. All of the following are TRUE of Safe Mode EXCEPT:
(A) Safe Mode is a special diagnostic mode.
(B) Safe Mode loads all nonessential icons.
(C) Safe Mode allows users to troubleshoot errors.
(D) Safe Mode loads only the most essential devices.
Ans : (B)
25. Verification of a login name and password is known as:
(A) configuration.
(B) accessibility.
(C) authentication.
(D) logging in.
Ans : (C)
26. The combination of the operating system and the processor is referred to as the
computer’s:
(A) CPU.
(B) platform.
(C) BIOS.
(D) CMOS.
Ans : (B)
27. The following message generally means:
(A) a nonsystem floppy has been left in the floppy disk drive.
(B) the CD drive is not functioning.
(C) the BIOS is corrupted.
(D) there is a problem loading a device.
Ans : (A)
28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of actions that takes place during the
boot-up process?
(A) Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Check configuration settings
(B) Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Check configuration settings
(C) Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings
(D) Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings ? Perform POST ? Load operating system
Ans : (B)
29. All of the following are steps involved in the boot process EXCEPT:
(A) load the operating system into RAM.
(B) the power-on self-test.
(C) activate the basic input/output system (BIOS).
(D) load application programs.
Ans : (D)
30. The ____________, stored on a ROM chip, is responsible for loading the operating
system from its permanent location on the hard drive into RAM.
(A) BIOS
(B) API
(C) device driver
(D) supervisor program
Ans : (A)
31. The basic Input/output system (BIOS) is stored in:
(A) RAM.
(B) ROM.
(C) the CPU.
(D) the hard drive.
Ans : (B)
32. Ensuring that the essential peripheral devices are attached and operational is the
____________ process.
(A) configuration
(B) CMOS
(C) POST
(D) ROM
Ans : (C)
33. The memory resident portion of the operating system is called the—
(A) registry.
(B) API.
(C) CMOS.
(D) kernel.
Ans : (D)
34. Which of the following does NOT occur during the power-on self-test (POST)?
(A) The ScanDisk utility begins to run.
(B) The video card and video memory are tested.
(C) The BIOS identification process occurs.
(D) Memory chips are checked to ensure they are working properly.
Ans : (A)
35. All of the following are TRUE regarding virtual memory EXCEPT—
(A) any amount of RAM can be allocated to virtual memory.
(B) the setting for the amount of hard drive space to allocate to virtual memory can be
manually changed.
(C) this temporary storage is called the swap file (or page file).
(D) virtual memory is physical space on the hard drive.
Ans : (A)
36. The operating system allows users to organize the computer’s contents in a
hierarchical structure of directories that include all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) files.
(B) folders.
(D) drives.
(D) systems.
Ans : (D)
37. All of the following statements concerning windows are true EXCEPT—
(A) windows are an example of a command-driven environment.
(B) windows can be resized and repositioned on the desktop.
(C) more than one window can be open at a time.
(D) toolbars and scrollbars are features of windows.
Ans : (A)
38. All of the following statements concerning files are true EXCEPT—
(A) A file is a collection of related pieces of information stored together for easy reference.
(B) Files can be generated from an application.
(C) Files are stored in RAM.
(D) Files should be organized in folders.
Ans : (C)
39. Using Windows Explorer, a plus (+) sign in front of a folder indicates—
(A) an open folder.
(B) the folder contains subfolders.
(C) a text file.
(D) a graphics file.
Ans : (B)
40. In Windows XP, if you want to see the file size and modified dates of all files in a
folder, the best viewing option is the __________ view.
(A) List
(B) Thumbnails
(C) Details
(D) Icon
Ans : (C)
(Exam Held on 25-07-2010)
1. If a word is typed that is not in Word’s dictionary, a____________wavy underline
appears below the word.
(A) red
(B) green
(C) blue
(D) black
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
2. The____________button on the quick access Toolbar allows you to cancel your recent
commands or actions.
(A) Search
(B) Cut
(C) Document
(D) Undo
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
3. In Excel, any set of characters containing a letter , hyphen, or space is considered—
(A) a formula
(B) text
(C) a name
(D) a title
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
4. ____________Software allows users to perform calculations on rows and columns of
data.
(A) Word processing
(B) Presentation graphics
(C) Database Management Systems
(D) Electronic Spreadsheet
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
5. A ____________represent approximately one billion memory locations.
(A) kilobyte
(B) megabyte
(C) gigabyte
(D) terabyte
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
6. ____________cells involves creating a single cell by combining two or more selected
cells.
(A) Formatting
(B) Merging
(C) Embedding
(D) Splitting
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
7. The operating system is the most common type of____________software.
(A) communication
(B) application
(C) system
(D) word-processing
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
8. When you quickly press and releaes the left mouse button twice , you are—
(A) Primary-clicking
(B) pointing
(C) Double-clicking
(D) Secondary-clicking
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
9. The horizontal and vertical lines on a worksheet are called—
(A) cells
(B) sheets
(C) block lines
(D) gridlines
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
10. To delete an incorrect character in a document, ____________ to erase to the right of
the insertion point.
(A) press the left mouse key
(B) double-click the right mouse key
(C) press the BACKSPACE key
(D) press the delete key
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
11. The operating system does all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) provide a way for the user to interact with the computer.
(B) manage the central processing unit (CPU).
(C) manage memory and storage.
(D) enable users to perform a specific task such as document editing.
Ans : (D)
12. During the boot process, the____________looks for the system files.
(A) CD
B. BIOS
C. CPU
D. DVD
Ans : (B)
13. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.
(A) GUIs
(B) Icons
(C) Menus
(D) Windows
Ans : (C)
14. ____________ is the ability of an operating system to control the activities of multiple
programs at the same time.
(A) Multitasking
(B) Streamlining
(C) Multiuser
(D) Simulcasting
Ans : (A)
15. The unique signal, generated by a device, that tells the operating system that it is in
need of immediate attention is called an:
(A) action.
(B) event.
(C) interrupt.
(D) activity.
Ans : (C)
16. The operating system controls access to the processor by assigning a(n) ____________
to each task requiring the processor’s attention.
(A) CPU
(B) slice of time
(C) stack
(D) event
Ans : (B)
17. The blocks of code, included in the operating system, that software applications
interact with are known as:
(A) application programming interfaces (APIs).
(B) complimentary metal-oxide conductors (CMOS).
(C) device drivers.
(D) bootstrap loaders.
Ans : (A)
18. MS-DOS is a ____________ operating system.
(A) point-and-click
(B) user-friendly
(C) command-driven
(D) Mac
Ans : (C)
19. An interrupt handler is a(n):
(A) location in memory that keeps track of recently generated interrupts.
(B) peripheral device.
(C) utility program.
(D) special numeric code that indicates the priority of a request.
Ans : (D)
20. A spooler is a(n):
(A) location in memory that maintains the contents of a document until it prints out.
(B) print job.
(C) program that coordinates the print jobs that are waiting to print.
(D) message sent from the printer to the operating system when a print job is completed.
Ans : (C)
21. Virtual memory is typically located:
(A) on a floppy disk.
(B) in the CPU.
(C) in a flash card.
(D) on the hard drive.
Ans : (D)
22. The purpose of a swap (or page) file is to:
(A) maintain pages of documents that are being spooled to the printer.
(B) hold a program’s data or instructions in virtual memory when it can’t fit in RAM.
(C) prevent thrashing in a multitasking environment.
(D) allow multiple print jobs to print their pages out simultaneously.
Ans : (B)
23. The definition of thrashing is:
(A) swapping data between virtual memory and RAM too frequently.
(B) insufficient hard disk space.
(C) too many processors being managed by the operating system.
(D) inaccurate information stored in the registry.
Ans : (A)
24. All of the following are TRUE of Safe Mode EXCEPT:
(A) Safe Mode is a special diagnostic mode.
(B) Safe Mode loads all nonessential icons.
(C) Safe Mode allows users to troubleshoot errors.
(D) Safe Mode loads only the most essential devices.
Ans : (B)
25. Verification of a login name and password is known as:
(A) configuration.
(B) accessibility.
(C) authentication.
(D) logging in.
Ans : (C)
26. The combination of the operating system and the processor is referred to as the
computer’s:
(A) CPU.
(B) platform.
(C) BIOS.
(D) CMOS.
Ans : (B)
27. The following message generally means:
(A) a nonsystem floppy has been left in the floppy disk drive.
(B) the CD drive is not functioning.
(C) the BIOS is corrupted.
(D) there is a problem loading a device.
Ans : (A)
28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of actions that takes place during the
boot-up process?
(A) Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Check configuration settings
(B) Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Check configuration settings
(C) Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings
(D) Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings ? Perform POST ? Load operating system
Ans : (B)
29. All of the following are steps involved in the boot process EXCEPT:
(A) load the operating system into RAM.
(B) the power-on self-test.
(C) activate the basic input/output system (BIOS).
(D) load application programs.
Ans : (D)
30. The ____________, stored on a ROM chip, is responsible for loading the operating
system from its permanent location on the hard drive into RAM.
(A) BIOS
(B) API
(C) device driver
(D) supervisor program
Ans : (A)
31. The basic Input/output system (BIOS) is stored in:
(A) RAM.
(B) ROM.
(C) the CPU.
(D) the hard drive.
Ans : (B)
32. Ensuring that the essential peripheral devices are attached and operational is the
____________ process.
(A) configuration
(B) CMOS
(C) POST
(D) ROM
Ans : (C)
33. The memory resident portion of the operating system is called the—
(A) registry.
(B) API.
(C) CMOS.
(D) kernel.
Ans : (D)
34. Which of the following does NOT occur during the power-on self-test (POST)?
(A) The ScanDisk utility begins to run.
(B) The video card and video memory are tested.
(C) The BIOS identification process occurs.
(D) Memory chips are checked to ensure they are working properly.
Ans : (A)
35. All of the following are TRUE regarding virtual memory EXCEPT—
(A) any amount of RAM can be allocated to virtual memory.
(B) the setting for the amount of hard drive space to allocate to virtual memory can be
manually changed.
(C) this temporary storage is called the swap file (or page file).
(D) virtual memory is physical space on the hard drive.
Ans : (A)
36. The operating system allows users to organize the computer’s contents in a
hierarchical structure of directories that include all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) files.
(B) folders.
(D) drives.
(D) systems.
Ans : (D)
37. All of the following statements concerning windows are true EXCEPT—
(A) windows are an example of a command-driven environment.
(B) windows can be resized and repositioned on the desktop.
(C) more than one window can be open at a time.
(D) toolbars and scrollbars are features of windows.
Ans : (A)
38. All of the following statements concerning files are true EXCEPT—
(A) A file is a collection of related pieces of information stored together for easy reference.
(B) Files can be generated from an application.
(C) Files are stored in RAM.
(D) Files should be organized in folders.
Ans : (C)
39. Using Windows Explorer, a plus (+) sign in front of a folder indicates—
(A) an open folder.
(B) the folder contains subfolders.
(C) a text file.
(D) a graphics file.
Ans : (B)
40. In Windows XP, if you want to see the file size and modified dates of all files in a
folder, the best viewing option is the __________ view.
(A) List
(B) Thumbnails
(C) Details
(D) Icon
Ans : (C)
Central Bank of India P.O. Exam., 2010
COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE
(ExamHeld on 25-7-2010)
1. If a word is typed that is not in Word’s dictionary, a____________wavy underline appears below the word.
(A) red
(B) green
(C) blue
(D) black
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
2. The____________button on the quick access Toolbar allows you to cancel your recent commands or actions.
(A) Search
(B) Cut
(C) Document
(D) Undo
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
3. In Excel, any set of characters containing a letter , hyphen, or space is considered—
(A) a formula
(B) text
(C) a name
(D) a title
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
4. ____________Software allows users to perform calculations on rows and columns of data.
(A) Word processing
(B) Presentation graphics
(C) Database Management Systems
(D) Electronic Spreadsheet
P a g e | 61
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
5. A ____________represent approximately one billion memory locations.
(A) kilobyte
(B) megabyte
(C) gigabyte
(D) terabyte
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
6. ____________cells involves creating a single cell by combining two or more selected cells.
(A) Formatting
(B) Merging
(C) Embedding
(D) Splitting
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
7. The operating system is the most common type of____________software.
(A) communication
(B) application
(C) system
(D) word-processing
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
8. When you quickly press and releaes the left mouse button twice , you are—
(A) Primary-clicking
(B) pointing
(C) Double-clicking
(D) Secondary-clicking
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
9. The horizontal and vertical lines on a worksheet are called—
(A) cells
(B) sheets
(C) block lines
(D) gridlines
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
10. To delete an incorrect character in a document, ____________ to erase to the right of the insertion point.
(A) press the left mouse key
(B) double-click the right mouse key
(C) press the BACKSPACE key
(D) press the delete key
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
11. The operating system does all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) provide a way for the user to interact with the computer.
(B) manage the central processing unit (CPU).
(C) manage memory and storage.
(D) enable users to perform a specific task such as document editing.
Ans : (D)
12. During the boot process, the____________looks for the system files.
(A) CD
B. BIOS
C. CPU
D. DVD
Ans : (B)
13. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.
(A) GUIs
(B) Icons
(C) Menus
(D) Windows
Ans : (C)
14. ____________ is the ability of an operating system to control the activities of multiple programs at the same time.
(A) Multitasking
(B) Streamlining
(C) Multiuser
(D) Simulcasting
Ans : (A)
15. The unique signal, generated by a device, that tells the operating system that it is in need of immediate attention is called an:
(A) action.
(B) event.
(C) interrupt.
(D) activity.
Ans : (C)
16. The operating system controls access to the processor by assigning a(n) ____________ to each task requiring the processor’s attention.
(A) CPU
(B) slice of time
(C) stack
(D) event
Ans : (B)
17. The blocks of code, included in the operating system, that software applications interact with are known as:
(A) application programming interfaces (APIs).
(B) complimentary metal-oxide conductors (CMOS).
(C) device drivers.
(D) bootstrap loaders.
Ans : (A)
18. MS-DOS is a ____________ operating system.
(A) point-and-click
(B) user-friendly
(C) command-driven
(D) Mac
Ans : (C)
19. An interrupt handler is a(n):
(A) location in memory that keeps track of recently generated interrupts.
(B) peripheral device.
(C) utility program.
(D) special numeric code that indicates the priority of a request.
Ans : (D)
20. A spooler is a(n):
(A) location in memory that maintains the contents of a document until it prints out.
(B) print job.
(C) program that coordinates the print jobs that are waiting to print.
(D) message sent from the printer to the operating system when a print job is completed.
Ans : (C)
21. Virtual memory is typically located:
(A) on a floppy disk.
(B) in the CPU.
(C) in a flash card.
(D) on the hard drive.
Ans : (D)
22. The purpose of a swap (or page) file is to:
(A) maintain pages of documents that are being spooled to the printer.
(B) hold a program’s data or instructions in virtual memory when it can’t fit in RAM.
(C) prevent thrashing in a multitasking environment.
(D) allow multiple print jobs to print their pages out simultaneously.
Ans : (B)
23. The definition of thrashing is:
(A) swapping data between virtual memory and RAM too frequently.
(B) insufficient hard disk space.
(C) too many processors being managed by the operating system.
(D) inaccurate information stored in the registry.
Ans : (A)
24. All of the following are TRUE of Safe Mode EXCEPT:
(A) Safe Mode is a special diagnostic mode.
(B) Safe Mode loads all nonessential icons.
(C) Safe Mode allows users to troubleshoot errors.
(D) Safe Mode loads only the most essential devices.
Ans : (B)
25. Verification of a login name and password is known as:
(A) configuration.
(B) accessibility.
(C) authentication.
(D) logging in.
Ans : (C)
26. The combination of the operating system and the processor is referred to as the computer’s:
(A) CPU.
(B) platform.
(C) BIOS.
(D) CMOS.
Ans : (B)
27. The following message generally means:
(A) a nonsystem floppy has been left in the floppy disk drive.
(B) the CD drive is not functioning.
(C) the BIOS is corrupted.
(D) there is a problem loading a device.
Ans : (A)
28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of actions that takes place during the boot-up process?
(A) Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Check configuration settings
(B) Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Check configuration settings
(C) Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings
(D) Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings ? Perform POST ? Load operating system
Ans : (B)
29. All of the following are steps involved in the boot process EXCEPT:
(A) load the operating system into RAM.
(B) the power-on self-test.
(C) activate the basic input/output system (BIOS).
(D) load application programs.
Ans : (D)
30. The ____________, stored on a ROM chip, is responsible for loading the operating system from its permanent location on the hard drive into RAM.
(A) BIOS
(B) API
(C) device driver
(D) supervisor program
Ans : (A)
31. The basic input/output system (BIOS) is stored in:
(A) RAM.
(B) ROM.
(C) the CPU.
(D) the hard drive.
Ans : (B)
32. Ensuring that the essential peripheral devices are attached and operational is the ____________ process.
(A) configuration
(B) CMOS
(C) POST
(D) ROM
Ans : (C)
33. The memory resident portion of the operating system is called the—
(A) registry.
(B) API.
(C) CMOS.
(D) kernel.
Ans : (D)
34. Which of the following does NOT occur during the power-on self-test (POST)?
(A) The ScanDisk utility begins to run.
(B) The video card and video memory are tested.
(C) The BIOS identification process occurs.
(D) Memory chips are checked to ensure they are working properly.
Ans : (A)
35. All of the following are TRUE regarding virtual memory EXCEPT—
(A) any amount of RAM can be allocated to virtual memory.
(B) the setting for the amount of hard drive space to allocate to virtual memory can be manually changed.
(C) this temporary storage is called the swap file (or page file).
(D) virtual memory is physical space on the hard drive.
Ans : (A)
36. The operating system allows users to organize the computer’s contents in a hierarchical structure of directories that include all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) files.
(B) folders.
(D) drives.
(D) systems.
Ans : (D)
37. All of the following statements concerning windows are true EXCEPT—
(A) windows are an example of a command-driven environment.
(B) windows can be resized and repositioned on the desktop.
(C) more than one window can be open at a time.
(D) toolbars and scrollbars are features of windows.
Ans : (A)
38. All of the following statements concerning files are true EXCEPT—
(A) A file is a collection of related pieces of information stored together for easy reference.
(B) Files can be generated from an application.
(C) Files are stored in RAM.
(D) Files should be organized in folders.
Ans : (C)
39. Using Windows Explorer, a plus (+) sign in front of a folder indicates—
(A) an open folder.
(B) the folder contains subfolders.
(C) a text file.
(D) a graphics file.
Ans : (B)
40. In Windows XP, if you want to see the file size and modified dates of all files in a folder, the best viewing option is the __________ view.
(A) List
(B) Thumbnails
(C) Details
(D) Icon
Ans : (C)
(ExamHeld on 25-7-2010)
1. If a word is typed that is not in Word’s dictionary, a____________wavy underline appears below the word.
(A) red
(B) green
(C) blue
(D) black
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
2. The____________button on the quick access Toolbar allows you to cancel your recent commands or actions.
(A) Search
(B) Cut
(C) Document
(D) Undo
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
3. In Excel, any set of characters containing a letter , hyphen, or space is considered—
(A) a formula
(B) text
(C) a name
(D) a title
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
4. ____________Software allows users to perform calculations on rows and columns of data.
(A) Word processing
(B) Presentation graphics
(C) Database Management Systems
(D) Electronic Spreadsheet
P a g e | 61
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
5. A ____________represent approximately one billion memory locations.
(A) kilobyte
(B) megabyte
(C) gigabyte
(D) terabyte
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
6. ____________cells involves creating a single cell by combining two or more selected cells.
(A) Formatting
(B) Merging
(C) Embedding
(D) Splitting
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
7. The operating system is the most common type of____________software.
(A) communication
(B) application
(C) system
(D) word-processing
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
8. When you quickly press and releaes the left mouse button twice , you are—
(A) Primary-clicking
(B) pointing
(C) Double-clicking
(D) Secondary-clicking
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
9. The horizontal and vertical lines on a worksheet are called—
(A) cells
(B) sheets
(C) block lines
(D) gridlines
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
10. To delete an incorrect character in a document, ____________ to erase to the right of the insertion point.
(A) press the left mouse key
(B) double-click the right mouse key
(C) press the BACKSPACE key
(D) press the delete key
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
11. The operating system does all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) provide a way for the user to interact with the computer.
(B) manage the central processing unit (CPU).
(C) manage memory and storage.
(D) enable users to perform a specific task such as document editing.
Ans : (D)
12. During the boot process, the____________looks for the system files.
(A) CD
B. BIOS
C. CPU
D. DVD
Ans : (B)
13. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.
(A) GUIs
(B) Icons
(C) Menus
(D) Windows
Ans : (C)
14. ____________ is the ability of an operating system to control the activities of multiple programs at the same time.
(A) Multitasking
(B) Streamlining
(C) Multiuser
(D) Simulcasting
Ans : (A)
15. The unique signal, generated by a device, that tells the operating system that it is in need of immediate attention is called an:
(A) action.
(B) event.
(C) interrupt.
(D) activity.
Ans : (C)
16. The operating system controls access to the processor by assigning a(n) ____________ to each task requiring the processor’s attention.
(A) CPU
(B) slice of time
(C) stack
(D) event
Ans : (B)
17. The blocks of code, included in the operating system, that software applications interact with are known as:
(A) application programming interfaces (APIs).
(B) complimentary metal-oxide conductors (CMOS).
(C) device drivers.
(D) bootstrap loaders.
Ans : (A)
18. MS-DOS is a ____________ operating system.
(A) point-and-click
(B) user-friendly
(C) command-driven
(D) Mac
Ans : (C)
19. An interrupt handler is a(n):
(A) location in memory that keeps track of recently generated interrupts.
(B) peripheral device.
(C) utility program.
(D) special numeric code that indicates the priority of a request.
Ans : (D)
20. A spooler is a(n):
(A) location in memory that maintains the contents of a document until it prints out.
(B) print job.
(C) program that coordinates the print jobs that are waiting to print.
(D) message sent from the printer to the operating system when a print job is completed.
Ans : (C)
21. Virtual memory is typically located:
(A) on a floppy disk.
(B) in the CPU.
(C) in a flash card.
(D) on the hard drive.
Ans : (D)
22. The purpose of a swap (or page) file is to:
(A) maintain pages of documents that are being spooled to the printer.
(B) hold a program’s data or instructions in virtual memory when it can’t fit in RAM.
(C) prevent thrashing in a multitasking environment.
(D) allow multiple print jobs to print their pages out simultaneously.
Ans : (B)
23. The definition of thrashing is:
(A) swapping data between virtual memory and RAM too frequently.
(B) insufficient hard disk space.
(C) too many processors being managed by the operating system.
(D) inaccurate information stored in the registry.
Ans : (A)
24. All of the following are TRUE of Safe Mode EXCEPT:
(A) Safe Mode is a special diagnostic mode.
(B) Safe Mode loads all nonessential icons.
(C) Safe Mode allows users to troubleshoot errors.
(D) Safe Mode loads only the most essential devices.
Ans : (B)
25. Verification of a login name and password is known as:
(A) configuration.
(B) accessibility.
(C) authentication.
(D) logging in.
Ans : (C)
26. The combination of the operating system and the processor is referred to as the computer’s:
(A) CPU.
(B) platform.
(C) BIOS.
(D) CMOS.
Ans : (B)
27. The following message generally means:
(A) a nonsystem floppy has been left in the floppy disk drive.
(B) the CD drive is not functioning.
(C) the BIOS is corrupted.
(D) there is a problem loading a device.
Ans : (A)
28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of actions that takes place during the boot-up process?
(A) Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Check configuration settings
(B) Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Check configuration settings
(C) Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings
(D) Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings ? Perform POST ? Load operating system
Ans : (B)
29. All of the following are steps involved in the boot process EXCEPT:
(A) load the operating system into RAM.
(B) the power-on self-test.
(C) activate the basic input/output system (BIOS).
(D) load application programs.
Ans : (D)
30. The ____________, stored on a ROM chip, is responsible for loading the operating system from its permanent location on the hard drive into RAM.
(A) BIOS
(B) API
(C) device driver
(D) supervisor program
Ans : (A)
31. The basic input/output system (BIOS) is stored in:
(A) RAM.
(B) ROM.
(C) the CPU.
(D) the hard drive.
Ans : (B)
32. Ensuring that the essential peripheral devices are attached and operational is the ____________ process.
(A) configuration
(B) CMOS
(C) POST
(D) ROM
Ans : (C)
33. The memory resident portion of the operating system is called the—
(A) registry.
(B) API.
(C) CMOS.
(D) kernel.
Ans : (D)
34. Which of the following does NOT occur during the power-on self-test (POST)?
(A) The ScanDisk utility begins to run.
(B) The video card and video memory are tested.
(C) The BIOS identification process occurs.
(D) Memory chips are checked to ensure they are working properly.
Ans : (A)
35. All of the following are TRUE regarding virtual memory EXCEPT—
(A) any amount of RAM can be allocated to virtual memory.
(B) the setting for the amount of hard drive space to allocate to virtual memory can be manually changed.
(C) this temporary storage is called the swap file (or page file).
(D) virtual memory is physical space on the hard drive.
Ans : (A)
36. The operating system allows users to organize the computer’s contents in a hierarchical structure of directories that include all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) files.
(B) folders.
(D) drives.
(D) systems.
Ans : (D)
37. All of the following statements concerning windows are true EXCEPT—
(A) windows are an example of a command-driven environment.
(B) windows can be resized and repositioned on the desktop.
(C) more than one window can be open at a time.
(D) toolbars and scrollbars are features of windows.
Ans : (A)
38. All of the following statements concerning files are true EXCEPT—
(A) A file is a collection of related pieces of information stored together for easy reference.
(B) Files can be generated from an application.
(C) Files are stored in RAM.
(D) Files should be organized in folders.
Ans : (C)
39. Using Windows Explorer, a plus (+) sign in front of a folder indicates—
(A) an open folder.
(B) the folder contains subfolders.
(C) a text file.
(D) a graphics file.
Ans : (B)
40. In Windows XP, if you want to see the file size and modified dates of all files in a folder, the best viewing option is the __________ view.
(A) List
(B) Thumbnails
(C) Details
(D) Icon
Ans : (C)
Central Bank of India P.O. Exam., 2010
English Language
(Exam Held on 25-7-2010)
Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the question.
A few weeks ago, a newspaper article quoted a well known scientist saying, “IT has destroyed Indian science”. One can speculate about the various ways in which the growth of the IT sector and other similar knowledge industries such as biotechnology has led to a decline in basic scientific research in India.
The most obvious reason is money; pay scales in IT and BT are much higher than one can aspire to in academia. The argument goes : why should a bright B. Tech. or M.Sc. student enroll in a Ph.D. programme when she can make a lot more money writing code ? Not only does a fresh IT employee make a lot more than a fresh M.Tech. student, her pay will rise much faster in IT than in academia. A professor’s pay at a government-run university, even after the Sixth Pay Commission, tops out at far less than a senior executive's salary in a major industry.
Second, the social status of IT and BT jobs equal or even exceed the social status of corresponding academic positions, since they are seen as knowledge industries, which plays to best and worst instincts of the societal order. As quintessential white collar professions, neither do they compel a successful entrepreneur to resort to violence and corruption, nor do they demand any physical labour. Unlike real estate or road construction, it is felt that IT workers can become rich while staying honest and sweat-free.
Assuming that the labour pool for academia and IT is roughly the same, the difference in our collective preferences biases the labour market towards IT and away from academia. Further, when the imbalance between IT and academia continues for years and even decades, a destructive loop, from academia’s point of view, is created. When our best and brightest take IT jobs over academic ones for a decade or more, faculty positions in our universities and research centres are no longer filled by the best candidates.
As faculty quality goes down, so does the capacity to train top-class graduate students who, after all, are teachers in training. In response to decreasing faculty quality, even those students who would otherwise choose an academic profession, decide to join industry or go abroad for their studies. These foreign trained graduates prefer to come back to corporate India—if at all they do come back—and the downward cycle replicates itself in each generation. In other words, academia is trapped within a perfect storm created by a combination of social and economic factors.
In this socio-economic calculus, the members of our societal classes should prefer an IT job to an academic one. Or, to put it another way, the knowledge economy, i.e., the creation of knowledge for profit, trumps the knowledge society, i.e., the creation of knowledge for its own sake or the sake of the greater good. As is said, “knowledge is power, but money is even more power.” Perhaps the scientist was alluding to this victory of capitalism over the pursuit of pure knowledge when he accused IT of having a negative influence on Indian science.
Surely, knowledge has become a commodity like any other and as a result, knowledge workers are like any other labourers, who will sell their wares to the highest bidder. One solution is to accept and even encourage the commoditization of knowledge; if so, Indian universities and research centres should copy their western counterparts by becoming more and more like corporations. These centres of learning should convert themselves into engines of growth. In this logic, if we increase academic salaries and research grants to match IT paycheques we will attract good people into academia, where, in any case, it is rumoured that a certain elusive feeling called ‘the quality of life’ is better.
1. According to the passage, what did the scientist actually mean when he said, “IT has destroyed Indian Science ?”
(A) The centres meant for Scientific research are being utilized by IT industries
(B) The IT industry does not employ people pursuing higher studies
(C) As information is readily available on the internet because of IT, there is no need to seek further information
(D) IT has distorted the truth as stated by Indian science
(E) The desire for money has overshadowed the search for knowledge
Ans : (B)
2. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage ?
(A) Is the Future of IT Bright ?
(B) The IT Industry and the World Economy
(C) Research and Academics – Losing the Battle Against IT
(D) Scientific Research and the Need for Well – Trained Faculty
(E) Information Technology and its Advantages
Ans : (C)
3. Why does the author say that knowledge has become a commodity ?
(A) As it is no longer desirable in any professional field
(B) As there are too many educational institutes in the country which do not provide quality education
(C) As knowledge is now available easily as compared to the past
(D) As knowledgeable people sell their services for the highest price possible
(E) Like commodities knowledge too becomes stale after a certain period
Ans : (D)
4. What, according to the author, is a destructive loop ?
(A) Many people quit their existing jobs to work in the IT industry which in turn leads to the downfall of the other industries
(B) The fact that the best minds do not want to become teachers and this in turn leads to good students seeking knowledge elsewhere
(C) The fact that people working in the IT industry do not pursue higher studies which in turn leads to the deterioration in quality of employees
(D) The unending use of resources by the IT industry leading to a dearth of resources in the country
(E) Less grants are being provided by the Government to academic institutes which in turn leads to poor quality students joining the same
Ans : (C)
5. Which of the following mentioned below is/are the author’s suggestion/s to promote interest in Indian academia ?
(1) Research centres should adopt the corporate culture as is done in the West
(2) Lessening the number of research grants given
(3) Making academic salaries equivalent to those paid in IT industries.
(A) Only (3)
(B) Only (1)
(C) Only (2) and (3)
(D) Only (1) and (3)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
6. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(1) It is believed that the quality of life is better when pursuing scientific research
(2) People currently seek knowledge only for the greater good of the society.
(3) Money is not perceived to be as powerful as knowledge.
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) Only (2) and (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (D)
7. Which of the following, according to the author, are factors responsible for the declining interest in scientific research ?
(1) Slower progress of work in research
(2) Lesser monetary compensation in research related activities
(3) Societal perception towards research
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (3)
(C) Only (2) and (3)
(D) Only (1) and 2)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (C)
8. Which of the following is true about the perception towards IT jobs as given in the passage ?
(1) They are physically tiring.
(2) They are considered to be managerial level jobs.
(3) They require usage of dishonest means.
(A) Only (2)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Only (2) and (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3) are true
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 9–12) Choose the word/group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
9. CAPACITY
(A) volume
(B) capability
(C) voltage
(D) quantity
(E) qualification
Ans : (B)
10. ALLUDING
(A) referring
(B) breaking
(C) escaping
(D) imposing
(E) clinging
Ans : (A)
11. SPECULATE
(A) visit
(B) contemplate
(C) remark
(D) argue
(E) regulate
Ans : (B)
12. QUINTESSENTIAL
(A) typical
(B) different
(C) necessary
(D) unique
(E) excellent
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 13–15) Choose the word/group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
13. BRIGHT
(A) soft
(B) dark
(C) dull
(D) vivid
(E) dim
Ans : (C)
14. ELUSIVE
(A) definite
(B) happy
(C) mysterious
(D) worthwhile
(E) remarkable
Ans : (A)
15. FRESH
(A) used
(B) stale
(C) tired
(D) experienced
(E) aged
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the word/phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.
16. The poor Brahmin led a hand to mouthful existence and could use any job which paid him a little—
(A) handful to mouthful existence
(B) hand to mouth existence
(C) handing for mouthful existing
(D) hand and mouth exist
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)
17. In order earning decent living we need to have a good job which pays a substantial amount of money—
(A) earned decency life
(B) earning decency live
(C) earn a decent living
(D) earned decently life
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)
18. We went to the famous restaurant to eat and were served piped hot food—
(A) served piping hotter
(B) serving pipe hot
(C) served piping hot
(D) serve pipe hotten
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)
19. Akshay considered Suresh a complete pain in the neck as he kept asking baseless questions—
(A) paining in the neck
(B) painless neck
(C) painful necks
(D) pain in necking
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)
20. I jump through hoop to finish this project in time but was not rewarded adequately—
(A) jumped through hoops
(B) jumping for hooping
(C) jumped on hoop
(D) jumping from hoop
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 21–25) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
21. Adding to a growing body of research …… cutting back on sweetened beverages it is now found that drinking …… sugary drinks may help lower blood pressure.
(A) for, all
(B) sustaining, increased
(C) against, lesser
(D) behind, more
(E) supporting, fewer
Ans : (E)
22. The blame game for the air tragedy is already in full …… with the authorities involved making attempts to …… for themselves.
(A) sway, defend
(B) view, try
(C) fledged, protect
(D) swing, cover
(E) roll, hide
Ans : (D)
23. The actress, wearing a dark gray suit and open necked shirt, sat …… the proceedings looking nervous throughout, occasionally frowning as her lawyer …… with the judge.
(A) through, spoke
(B) on, argued
(C) for, addressed
(D) with, discussed
(E) along, lectured
Ans : (B)
24. It was an excellent social evening with people from all ……… of life getting a chance to let their hair ………
(A) areas, drop
(B) realms, flow
(C) arena, undone
(D) walks, down
(E) types, loose
Ans : (D)
25. There can be no denying the fact that in sports, star coaches have the …… to get something extra out of their ………
(A) apprehension, work
(B) ability, teams
(C) fear, member
(D) capability, house
(E) desirous, players
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following Six sentence (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—
(1) It is therefore a contributing factor to the growth of landfills and waterway pollution, both of which are costly and energy intensive to solve.
(2) Making an effort to use those resources and avoid polystyrene ones can help to decrease your environmental impact.
(3) Non-biodegradable essentially means that any polystyrene that makes its way into a landfill will stay there indefinitely, never breaking down and returning to the earth.
(4) Polystyrene, as a product, is very convenient to use, but it has some important effects we should consider when making choices as consumers.
(5) While recycling polystyrene material can cushion the environmental blow of its use, alternatives are available that are created from renewable resources and biodegrade more readily.
(6) For example, while polystyrene has some excellent uses and is, technically, recyclable, it is not a substance that biodegrades.
26. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (B)
27. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (C)
28. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)
29. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)
30. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 31–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
31. Sugar-sweetened drinks does not (A) /pose any particular health risk, and (B) / are not a unique risk factor (C) / for obesity or heart disease (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
32. Airline managements should note (A) / that the ultimate passenger unfriendliness (B) / is to have their planes crash (C) / due to the adopted of unsafe procedures (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
33. Celebrating its ten long years (A) / in the industry, a private entertainment channel (B) / announce a series of (C) / programmes at a press conference (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
34. The award ceremony ended (A) / on a note of good cheer (B) / with audiences responding warmly (C) / to its line up of film (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
35. The actress was ordered for (A) / wear an alcohol monitoring bracelet and (B) / submit to random weekly drug testing after (C) / she failed to appear for a court date last week (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
36. Coaches have the advantage of (A) / draw on their personal experiences (B) / and providing their players (C) / with unique inputs (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
37. The actor loves to think (A) / never enjoys stick to one kind of role (B) / and finds it difficult to (C) / fulfil everyone’s expectations (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
38. A major computer security firm urged (A) / the social networking site to set up (B) / an early-warning system after hundreds of users were (C) / hit by a new wave of virus attacks (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)
39. The finding may help doctors (A) / to give more personalised care to patients (B) / and to modify the amount of powerful drugs (C) / administered over their patients (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
40. The actress made a rare appearance (A) / at the party and was (B) / overheard talking in (C) / her next big project (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which ‘fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Hundreds of plants and animals are (…41…) every-day due to deforestation and urbanization, what might happen if this continues in the future ? The last mass extinction of plant and animal species occurred 65 million years ago with the Dinosaurs. In all, five mass extinctions have occurred and scientists (…42…) earth is in the sixth mass extinction. The world as it is now is threatened, including people, who are responsible for earth’s (…43…). Pesticides contaminating water; overharvesting of animals and plants; air pollution; illegal fishing and the clearing of land are direct results of urbanization and deforestation. People have (…44…) and damaged almost half of earth’s land, at a very unsustainable rate.
Global warming is having a serious impact as well. A six-degree Celsius increase in global temperature killed 95% of all species on Earth 251 million years ago. An increase of six-degrees Celsius is forecast this century if a change is not made to (…45…) the damage done to earth. Humans will be one of the 95% of species lost. Noticeable changes of global warming include migration (…46…) and the change in season timings. Migrating birds are migrating earlier, which in turn is causing them to hatch eggs and (…47…) young earlier than they did at the beginning of this century. While this is just the tip of the iceberg, many other (…48…) regarding the extinction of plant and animal species need addressing. It is more important now than ever before to pull our heads out of the sand and make changes for the (…49…) of the earth. Future generations are (…50…), as they are a species as well.
41. (A) killing
(B) alive
(C) born
(D) left
(E) lost
Ans : (E)
42. (A) speak
(B) told
(C) estimation
(D) believe
(E) consider
Ans : (D)
43. (A) shape
(B) development
(C) deterioration
(D) warmth
(E) expansion
Ans : (C)
44. (A) altered
(B) created
(C) produced
(D) made
(E) brought
Ans : (A)
45. (A) void
(B) dissipate
(C) augment
(D) reverse
(E) increase
Ans : (D)
46. (A) delay
(B) birds
(C) slowdown
(D) hasten
(E) acceleration
Ans : (E)
47. (A) spare
(B) bear
(C) destroy
(D) amend
(E) generation
Ans : (B)
48. (A) animals
(B) difficulty
(C) issues
(D) humans
(E) problem
Ans : (C)
49. (A) extinction
(B) better
(C) wealth
(D) stigma
(E) demand
Ans : (B)
50. (A) endangered
(B) threaten
(C) evaluated
(D) living
(E) compared
Ans : (A)
Central Bank of India P.O. Exam., 2010 Solved Paper
General Awareness
(Exam Held on 25-7-2010)
1. Equity schemes managed strong NAV gains, which boost their assets’ was a news in some financial newspapers. What is the full form of the term NAV as used in above head lines ?
(A) Nil Accounting Variation
(B) Net Accounting Venture
(C) Net Asset Value
(D) New Asset Venture
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
2. As per reports published in various news papers, mutual fund companies showed 94 per cent growth in their total profits during 2009-10. This means the profits earned by these companies were 94 per cent—
(A) Of the total investments they made collectively during the year
(B) More than their profits during previous year
(C) Of the total capital of the company
(D) Less than the total expenditure of the companies
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
3. As per the news published in various newspapers Pakistan has imposed 15 per cent regulatory duty on exports of cotton yarn. Why countries are required to impose regulatory duties on exports of some of their commodities while in the eyes of the layman more exports means more foreign exchange and more revenue for the Govt. ?
1. It is done to control the exports of a commodity as it may be needed more in local markets than in foreign countries.
2. It is done to control the general inflation in the country as the inordinate exports of various commodities create imbalance and also cost push inflation.
3. It is a good short time measure to collect more revenue from the exports of the commodity which is in high demand in overseas markets.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
4. As per the reports published in some major newspapers ‘ADAG companies’ made good profits during the year. ADAG companies are popularly known as—
(A) Companies owned by Tata Group
(B) Aditya Birla Companies
(C) Reliance Companies
(D) Companies owned by Aptech
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
5. ONGC–Mittal Energy finds hydrocarbons in two blocks OPL-279 & OPL-285 in Nigerian sea was the news in some major newspapers. what is the full form of the term OPL as used in the above head line ?
(A) Oil Prospecting License
(B) Ownership and Partnership Lease
(C) Overseas Private Line
(D) ONGC Petroleum Ltd.
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
6. “Mutual Funds reported exceptional performance in 2009-10” was the news in major financial newspapers recently. What is a mutual fund ?
1. A type of collective investment scheme that pools money from many investors and invest it in stocks, bonds or other money market instruments.
2. It is a subsidiary of a bank or financial company created specially to ralse money to be invested in a particular industry i.e. housing or insurance etc. The money raised thus cannot be invested anywhere else.
3. When several banks and financial companies come together and create a common pool of money to fund mega infrastructural project like bridges, roads, power plants etc. the common pool is known as Mutual Fund.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
7. As we all know the Bank Rate at present is fixed at 6%. What does it mean in context to the banking operations ?
(A) No bank will be able to give loan to any party on a rate lower than the Bank Rate
(B) Bank should give loan to their priority sector customers/borrowers at the rate of 6% only. They cannot charge less or more than this from their priority sector clients
(C) Banks are required to invest 6% of their total capital on financial inclusion and inclusive banking operations
(D) Banks will be required to give 6% of their total deposits to the Govt. of India for meeting its Balance of Trade requirements
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
8. As per the reports in various newspapers many private companies are trying to obtain the licences to launch a banking company in India. Which of the following organizations/agencies issue the licence for the same ?
(A) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(B) Indian Institute of Banking and Finance (IIBF)
(C) Indian Bank Association
(D) Registrar of Companies
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
9. We very frequently read about Europe’s Sovereign—debt crisis these day. Which of the following statement/s is/are true about the same ?
1. In early 2010 the Euro crisis developed in some countries like Greece, Spain and Portugal.
2. This created a credit default swap between the countries of the European Union.
3. SAARC countries have offered some assistance to some of severely affected countries like Portugal, Spain and Greece.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
10. As we all know the RBI has raised the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) by 25 bps in April 2010. What action banks will have to take to implement the same ?
1. They will have to deposit some more money with the RBI as a reserved money.
2. Banks will be required to give some more loan to projects of the priority sector.
3. Banks will be required to give loan equivalent to the CRR to the Govt. of India for its day to day expenditure as and when required.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (A)
11. As per estimates given by the RBI the Economic Growth during the year 2010-11 will be at which of the following levels ?
(A) 6•5%
(B) 7%
(C) 7•5%
(D) 8%
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
12. Which of the following is/are correct about the RBI’s credit policy announced in April 2010 ?
1. Repo rate raised by 25 bps.
2. A new reporting platform was introduced for secondary market transactions in Certificate of Deposits (CDs) and Commercial Papers (CPs).
3. Core Investment Companies (CICs) having an asset size of Rs. 100 crore are required to register also with the RBI.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
13. As per the announcement made by the RBI some Stock Exchanges in India are allowed to introduce Plain Vanilla Currency Options. The term Plain Vanilla Currency Options is associated with which of the following activities / operations ?
(A) Dollar–Rupee Exchange Rate
(B) Floating of Commercial Papers
(C) Launch of new mutual funds
(D) Deciding the opening price of a share on a particular business day
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
14. Which of the following is not a term related to banking/finance operations ?
(A) Provision Coverage Ratio
(B) Securitization
(C) Consolidation
(D) Commodification
(E) Derivatives
Ans : (C)
15. The process of “Artificial Application of Water to the soil usually for assisting in growing crops”, is technically known as—
(A) water harvesting
(B) irrigation
(C) water recharging
(D) percolation
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
16. As per the news published in major newspapers / journals henceforth the Credit Card holders will be able to access their credit card information though automated interactive voice response system over the phone instead of speaking to the staff. This decision of the banks/credit card companies will provide—
1. an additional hurdle to the customers as people feel comfortable in talking to the staff instead of talking to a machine.
2. an additional security to the customers as this does not allow any staff to handle any transaction directly.
3. some comfort to the banks as they will be able to reduce their staff strength.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only 1 and 3
Ans : (B)
17. The 34th National Game which were postponed several times are scheduled to be held in which of the following states ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) Jharkhand
Ans : (E)
18. Waste Water generates which of the following gases which is more powerful and dangerous than CO2 ?
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Sulphur di-oxide
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Methane
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
19. Which of the following days was observed as World Water Day 2010 ?
(A) 20th June
(B) 22nd July
(C) 22nd March
(D) 20th May
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
20. Late Vinda Karandikar who died a few months back was a famous—
(A) Author
(B) Cine-Actor
(C) Sportsman
(D) Classical Singer
(E) Social Worker
Ans : (A)
21. As per the reports published recently the Govt. of India has decided to create a separate agency/body scrutinize all Foreign Direct Investments (FDIs) officially. Up till now the security screening was being done by the—
(A) Ministry of Foreign Affairs Govt. of India
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(D) Ministry of Finance, Govt. of India
(E) Ministry of Home Affairs Govt. of India
Ans : (E)
22. As per the news reports in various newspapers the USA has outlined some major policy goals to prevent the danger of nuclear terrorism. Which of the following is/are included in those policy goals ?
1. Convene a nuclear security summit within a year’s time under the leadership of the USA.
2. A new agreement/pact should be introduced in place of present Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT).
3. Call for a global effort to secure all nuclear weapons at all vulnerable sites all over the world.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)
23. ‘Indira Gandhi Canal’ which is around 450 km long provide irrigation facility mainly to which of the following states ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Gujarat
(E) Rajasthan
Ans : (E)
24. Former caption of the Indian Cricket team, Ajit Wadekar is conferred which of the following awards for the year 2010 ?
(A) Bharat Ratna
(B) Khel Shri Award
(C) Dronacharya Award
(D) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
25. Who amongst the following is the director of the popular Hindi film “Oye Lucky ! Lucky Oye” ?
(A) Mani Ratnam
(B) David Dhavan
(C) Dibankar Banerjee
(D) R. Balakrishnan
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
26. India recently signed an agreement to import Liquified Natural Gas (LNG) from a country which is the largest LNG producer and supplier of the world. Which is that country ?
(A) Kuwait
(B) Qatar
(C) Iran
(D) Saudi Arabia
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
27. As a measure to help countries hit by global financial meltdown the RBI has purchased notes worth US $ 10 billion in terms of Special Drawing Rights from a World Organisation/agency. Which is this agency/organization ?
(A) Federal Reserve of U.S.A.
(B) Asian Development Bank
(C) World Bank
(D) International Monetary Fund
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
28. Which of the following is not a public sector undertaking under the Ministry of Defence, Govt. of India ?
(A) Mazagaon Dock Ltd.
(B) Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Ltd.
(C) Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd.
(D) Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd.
(E) Bharat Earth Movers Ltd.
Ans : (C)
29. Which of the following states won the senior National Women’s Football Tournament 2010 ?
(A) Manipur
(B) Assam
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Kerala
(E) Delhi
Ans : (A)
30. Which of the following is not a missile developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) ?
(A) Shaurya
(B) Pinaka
(C) BrahMos
(D) Agni
(E) Nag
Ans : (A)
31. Which of the following declarations/treaties was adopted by the BRIC countries recently to promote Global Food Security ?
(A) Moscow Declaration
(B) Doha Treaty
(C) Delhi Declaration
(D) Kabul Treaty
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
32. Which of the following statements represent(s) the main objective(s) of the revised National Health Policy–2002 of the Govt. of India ?
1. Increase Public expenditure from 0•9 per cent to 2 per cent of the GDP.
2. Setting up of Medical Grants Commission for funding new Govt. Medical and Dental colleges.
3. Mandatory two years rural posting before awarding the degree to Medical Graduates.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)
33. Which of the following metals is used for generation of nuclear Energy by most of the Nuclear Power Plants ?
(A) Zinc
(B) Platinum
(C) Uranium
(D) Nickel
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
34. Indus Water Treaty is a pact on sharing of river water between India and—
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Pakistan
(C) Nepal
(D) Afghanistan
(E) Myanmar
Ans : (B)
35. The Union Cabinet recently cleared Prohibition of unfair Practices in Technical Medical Educational Institutes and Universities Bill 2010. As per the Bill which of the following will now be treated as a cognizable offence ?
(A) Accepting capitation fee from the students
(B) Running a private college
(C) Not allowing students to change their course in between
(D) Running a college without proper facilities
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
36. Which of the following is/are considered a Renewable Source of Energy ?
1. Wind Energy
2. Solar Energy
3. Nuclear Energy
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (D)
37. Which of the following countries is not amongst the top ten in industrial production in the world during 2010 ?
(A) India
(B) Iran
(C) China
(D) France
(E) U.S.A.
Ans : (B)
38. Commonwealth Games 2010 are being organized in which of the following countries ?
(A) Australia
(B) South Africa
(C) Canada
(D) New Zealand
(E) India
Ans : (E)
39. Which of the following is not a banking related term ?
(A) Radiation
(B) Outstanding amount
(C) Benchmark Prime Lending Rate
(D) Explicit Guarantee
(E) Creditor
Ans : (A)
40. Insurance service provided by various banks is commonly known as—
(A) Investment Banking
(B) Portfolio Management
(C) Merchant Banking
(D) Bancassurance
(E) Micro Finance
Ans : (D)
41. Who amongst the following has recently taken over as the Chairman of the 19th Law Commission ?
(A) Mr. A. R. Lakshmanan
(B) Mr. P. V. Reddy
(C) Mr. Yashwant Sinha
(D) Mr. Ranjan Bharti Mittal
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
42. Moortidevi Award is given for excellence in the field of—
(A) Classical dance
(B) Literature
(C) Classical music
(D) Cinematography
(E) Social service
Ans : (B)
43. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Cricket ?
(A) Love
(B) Tee
(C) Penalty stroke
(D) No Ball
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
44. Which of the following awards is given by an agency of the United Nations Organization ?
(A) Normon Borloug Award
(B) Kalinga Prize
(C) Ramon Magsaysay Award
(D) Pulitzer Prize
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
45. Which of the following countries won the Hockey World Cup 2010 ?
(A) Spain
(B) England
(C) India
(D) Australia
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
46. Who amongst the following is the author of the English novel ‘solo’, which was given Commonwealth Writers’ Prize 2010 ?
(A) Aamer Hussain
(B) Jonathan Tel
(C) Rana Dasgupta
(D) John Torrence Tate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
47. Mr. Surjit Patar who was awarded Saraswati Samman recently is a well known poet of—
(A) Hindi
(B) English
(C) Punjabi
(D) Urdu
(E) Bengali
Ans : (C)
48. Which of the following is the book written by Kiran Desai ?
(A) Higher than Everest
(B) A Passage to England
(C) Affluent Society
(D) All My Yester Years
(E) The Inheritance of Loss
Ans : (E)
49. Which of the following Trophies/cups is associated with the game of Hockey ?
(A) Durand Cup
(B) Santosh Trophy
(C) Rangaswami Cup
(D) Ranji Trophy
(E) K. D. Singh Babu Trophy
Ans : (C)
50. Sandra Bullock who was awarded Oscar recently is a famous—
(A) Actress
(B) Director
(C) Music Composer
(D) Screen play writer
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
Central Bank of India Probationary Officers Exam., 2010
Central Bank of India Probationary Officers Exam., 2010
(Held on 25-7-2010)
General Awareness
1. Equity schemes managed strong NAV gains, which boost their assets’ was a news in some financial newspapers. What is the full form of the term NAV as used in above head lines ?
(A) Nil Accounting Variation
(B) Net Accounting Venture
(C) Net Asset Value
(D) New Asset Venture
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
2. As per reports published in various news papers, mutual fund companies showed 94 per cent growth in their total profits during 2009-10. This means the profits earned by these companies were 94 per cent—
(A) Of the total investments they made collectively during the year
(B) More than their profits during previous year
(C) Of the total capital of the company
(D) Less than the total expenditure of the companies
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
3. As per the news published in various news papers Pakistan has imposed 15 per cent regulatory duty on exports of cotton yarn. Why countries are required to impose regulatory duties on exports of some of their commodities while in the eyes of the layman more exports means more foreign exchange and more revenue for the Govt. ?
1. It is done to control the exports of a commodity as it may be needed more in local markets than in foreign countries.
2. It is done to control the general inflation in the country as the inordinate exports of various commodities create imbalance and also cost push inflation.
3. It is a good short time measure to collect more revenue from the exports of the commodity which is in high demand in overseas markets.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
4. As per the reports published in some major news papers ‘ADAG companies’ made good profits during the year. ADAG companies are popularly known as—
(A) Companies owned by Tata Group
(B) Aditya Birla Companies
(C) Reliance companies
(D) Companies owned by Aptech
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
5. ONGC – Mittal Energy finds hydrocarbons in two blocks OPL-279 & OPL -285 in Nigerian sea was the news in some major news papers. what is the full form of the term OPL as used in the above head line ?
(A) Oil Prospecting License
(B) Ownership and Partnership Lease
(C) Overseas Private Line
(D) ONGC Petroleum Ltd.
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
6. “Mutual Funds reported exceptional performance in 2009-10” was the news in major financial news papers recently. What is a mutual fund ?
1. A type of collective investment scheme that pools money from many investors and invest it in stocks, bonds or other money market instruments.
2. It is a subsidiary of a bank or financial company created specially to ralse money to be invested in a particular industry i.e. housing or insurance etc. The money raised thus cannot be invested anywhere else.
3. When several banks and financial companies come together and create a common pool of money to fund
mega infrastructural project like bridges, roads, power plants etc. the common pool is known as Mutual Fund.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
7. As we all know the Bank Rate at present is fixed at 6%. What does it mean in context to the banking operations ?
(A) No bank will be able to give loan to any party on a rate lower than the Bank Rate
(B) Bank should give loan to their priority sector customers/borrowers at the rate of 6% only. They cannot charge less or more than this from their priority sector clients
(C) Banks are required to invest 6% of their total capital on financial inclusion and inclusive banking operations
(D) Banks will be required to give 6% of their total deposits to the Govt. of India for meeting its Balance of Trade requirements
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
8. As per the reports in various news papers many private companies are trying to obtain the licences to launch a banking company in India. Which of the following organizations/agencies issue the licence for the same ?
(A) Securities & Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(B) Indian Institute of Banking & Finance (IIBF)
(C) Indian Bank Association
(D) Registrar of Companies
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
9. We very frequently read about Europe’s Sovereign—debt crisis these day. Which of the following statement/s is/are true about the same ?
1. In early 2010 the Euro crisis developed in some countries like Greece, Spain and Portugal.
2. This created a credit default swap between the countries of the European Union.
3. SAARC countries have offered some assistance to some of severely affected countries like Portugal, Spain & Greece.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
10. As we all know the RBI has raised the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) by 25 bps. in April 2010. What action banks will have to take to implement the same ?
1. They will have to deposit some more money with the RBI as a reserved money.
2. Banks will be required to give some more loan to projects of the priority sector.
3. Banks will be required to give loan equivalent to the CRR to the Govt. of India for its day to day expenditure as and when required.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (A)
11. As per estimates given by the RBI the Economic Growth during the year 2010-11 will be at which of the following levels ?
(A) 6•5%
(B) 7%
(C) 7•5%
(D) 8%
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
12. Which of the following is/are correct about the RBI’s credit policy announced in April 2010 ?
1. Repo rate raised by 25 bps.
2. A new reporting platform was introduced for secondary market transactions in Certificate of Deposits (CDs) and Commercial Papers (CPs).
3. Core Investment Companies (CICs) having an asset size of Rs. 100 crore are required to register also with the RBI.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
13. As per the announcement made by the RBI some Stock Exchanges in India are allowed to introduce Plain Vanilla Currency Options. The term Plain Vanilla Currency Options is associated with which of the following activities / operations ?
(A) Dollar – Rupee Exchange Rate
(B) Floating of Commercial Papers
(C) Launch of new mutual funds
(D) Deciding the opening price of a share on a particular business day
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
14. Which of the following is not a term related to banking/finance operations ?
(A) Provision Coverage Ratio
(B) Securitization
(C) Consolidation
(D) Commodification
(E) Derivatives
Ans : (C)
15. The process of “Artificial Application of Water to the soil usually for assisting in growing crops”, is technically known as—
(A) water harvesting
(B) irrigation
(C) water recharging
(D) percolation
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
16. As per the news published in major news papers/journals henceforth the Credit Card holders will be able to access their credit card information though automated interactive voice response system over the phone instead of speaking to the staff. This decision ofthe banks/credit card companies will provide—
1. an additional hurdle to the customers as people feel comfortable in talking to the staff instead of talking to a machine.
2. an additional security to the customers as this does not allow any staff to handle any transaction directly.
3. some comfort to the banks as they will be able to reduce their staff strength.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only 1 and 3
Ans : (B)
17. The 34th National Game which were postponed several times are scheduled to be held in which of the following states ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) Jharkhand
Ans : (E)
18. Waste Water generates which of the following gases which is more powerful and dangerous than CO2 ?
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Sulphur di-oxide
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Methane
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
19. Which of the following days was observed as World Water Day 2010 ?
(A) 20th June
(B) 22nd July
(C) 22nd March
(D) 20th May
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
20. Late Vinda Karandikar who died a few months back was a famous—
(A) Author
(B) Cine-Actor
(C) Sportsman
(D) Classical Singer
(E) Social Worker
Ans : (A)
21. As per the reports published recently the Govt. of India has decided to create a separate agency/body scrutinize all Foreign Direct Investments (FDIs) officially. Up till now the security screening was being done by the—
(A) Ministry of Foreign Affairs Govt. of India
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) Securities & Exchange Board of India
(D) Ministry of Finance, Govt. of India
(E) Ministry of Home Affairs Govt. of India
Ans : (E)
22. As per the news reports in various news papers the USA has outlined some major policy goals to prevent the danger of nuclear terrorism. Which of the following is/are included in those policy goals ?
1. Convene a nuclear security summit within a year’s time under the leadership of the USA.
2. A new agreement/pact should be introduced in place of present Nuclear Non Proliferation Treaty (NPT).
3. Call for a global effort to secure all nuclear weapons at all vulnerable sites all over the world.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)
23. ‘Indira Gandhi Canal’ which is around 450 km long provide irrigation facility mainly to which of the following states ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Gujarat
(E) Rajasthan
Ans : (E)
24. Former caption of the Indian Cricket team, Ajit Wadekar is conferred which of the following awards for the year 2010 ?
(A) Bharat Ratna
(B) Khel Shri Award
(C) Dronacharya Award
(D) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
25. Who amongst the following is the director of the popular Hindi film “Oye Lucky ! Lucky Oye” ?
(A) Mani Ratnam
(B) David Dhavan
(C) Dibankar Banerjee
(D) R. Balakrishnan
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
26. India recently signed an agreement to import Liquified Natural Gas (LNG) from a country which is the largest LNG producer and supplier of the world. Which is that country ?
(A) Kuwait
(B) Qatar
(C) Iran
(D) Saudi Arabia
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
27. As a measure to help countries hit by global financial meltdown the RBI has purchased notes worth US $ 10 billion in terms of Special Drawing Rights from a World Organisation/agency. Which is this agency/organization ?
(A) Federal Reserve of U.S.A.
(B) Asian Development Bank
(C) World Bank
(D) International Monetary Fund
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
28. Which of the following is not a public sector undertaking under the Ministry of Defence, Govt. of India ?
(A) Mazagaon Dock Ltd.
(B) Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Ltd.
(C) Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd.
(D) Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd.
(E) Bharat Earth Movers Ltd.
Ans : (C)
29. Which of the following states won the senior National Women’s Football Tournament 2010 ?
(A) Manipur
(B) Assam
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Kerala
(E) Delhi
Ans : (A)
30. Which of the following is not a missile developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) ?
(A) Shaurya
(B) Pinaka
(C) Brahmos
(D) Agni
(E) Nag
Ans : (A)
31. Which of the following declarations/treaties was adopted by the BRIC countries recently to promote Global Food Security ?
(A) Moscow Declaration
(B) Doha Treaty
(C) Delhi Declaration
(D) Kabul Treaty
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
32. Which of the following statements represent(s) the main objective(s) of the revised National Health Policy–2002 of the Govt. of India ?
1. Increase Public expenditure from 0•9 per cent to 2 per cent of the GDP.
2. Setting up of Medical Grants Commission for funding new Govt. Medical & Dental colleges.
3. Mandatory two years rural posting before awarding the degree to Medical Graduates.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)
33. Which of the following metals is used for genration of nuclear Energy by most of the Nuclear Power Plants ?
(A) Zinc
(B) Platinum
(C) Uranium
(D) Nickel
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
34. Indus Water Treaty is a pact on sharing of river water between India and—
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Pakistan
(C) Nepal
(D) Afghanistan
(E) Myanmar
Ans : (B)
35. The Union Cabinet recently cleared Prohibition of unfair Practices in Technical Medical Educational Institutes and Universities Bill 2010. As per the bill which of the following will now be treated as a cognizable offence ?
(A) Accepting capitation fee from the students
(B) Running a private college
(C) Not allowing students to change their course in between
(D) Running a college without proper facilities
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
36. Which of the following is/are considered a Renewable Source of Energy ?
1. Wind Energy
2. Solar Energy
3. Nuclear Energy
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (D)
37. Which of the following countries is not amongst the top ten in industrial production in the world during 2010 ?
(A) India
(B) Iran
(C) China
(D) France
(E) U.S.A.
Ans : (B)
38. Commonwealth Games 2010 are being organized in which of the following countries ?
(A) Australia
(B) South Africa
(C) Canada
(D) New Zealand
(E) India
Ans : (E)
39. Which of the following is not a banking related term ?
(A) Radiation
(B) Outstanding amount
(C) Benchmark Prime Lending Rate
(D) Explicit Guarantee
(E) Creditor
Ans : (A)
40. Insurance service provided by various banks is commonly known as—
(A) Investment Banking
(B) Portfolio Management
(C) Merchant Banking
(D) Bancassurance
(E) Micro Finance
Ans : (D)
41. Who amongst the following has recently taken over as the Chairman of the 19th Law Commission ?
(A) Mr. A. R. Lakshmanan
(B) Mr. P. V. Reddy
(C) Mr. Yashwant Sinha
(D) Mr. Ranjan Bharti Mittal
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
42. Moortidevi Award is given for excellence in the field of—
(A) Classical dance
(B) Literature
(C) Classical music
(D) Cinematography
(E) Social service
Ans : (B)
43. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Cricket ?
(A) Love
(B) Tee
(C) Penalty stroke
(D) No Ball
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
44. Which of the following awards is given by an agency of the United Nations Organization ?
(A) Normon Borloug Award
(B) Kalinga Prize
(C) Ramon Magsaysay Award
(D) Pulitzer Prize
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
45. Which of the following countries won the Hockey World Cup 2010 ?
(A) Spain
(B) England
(C) India
(D) Australia
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
46. Who amongst the following is the author of the English novel ‘solo’, which was given Common Wealth Writers’ Prize 2010 ?
(A) Aamer Hussain
(B) Jonathan Tel
(C) Rana Dasgupta
(D) John Torrence Tate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
47. Mr. Surjit Patar who was awarded Saraswati Samman recently is a well known poet of—
(A) Hindi
(B) English
(C) Punjabi
(D) Urdu
(E) Bengali
Ans : (C)
48. Which of the following is the book written by Kiran Desai ?
(A) Higher than Everest
(B) A Passage to England
(C) Affluent Society
(D) All my Yester Years
(E) The Inheritance of Loss
Ans : (E)
49. Which of the following Trophies/cups is associated with the game of Hockey ?
(A) Durand Cup
(B) Santosh Trophy
(C) Rangaswami Cup
(D) Ranji Trophy
(E) K. D. Singh Babu Trophy
Ans : (C)
50. Sandra Bullock who was awarded Oscar recently is a famous—
(A) Actress
(B) Director
(C) Music Composer
(D) Screen play writer
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
No comments:
Post a Comment