Tuesday, January 10, 2012

Dena Bank Exam Paper

 


  • Dena Bank Agriculture Officers Exam 2008 Solved Paper

    Agriculture


    1. Which of the following crops is tolerant of soil on water salinity?
    (A) Date-palm
    (B) Cabbage
    (C) Orange
    (D) Grapes
    (E) Peas

    2. How many minimum tractor hours per year of 40 H.P. power should be used approximately for purely agricultural use and not for custom service unit to become viable unit ?(A) 500 hrs.
    (B) 600 hrs.
    (C) 1000 hrs.
    (D) 1500 hrs.
    (E) 2000 hrs.

    3. Drip-irrigation has been most successful for……
    (A) Rice
    (B) Wheat
    (C) Berseem
    (D) Lucerne
    (E) Grape
    4. The percentage of Nitrogen (N) in DAP is……
    (A) 46
    (B) 26
    (C) 18
    (D) 80
    (E) 30
    5. Contract farming consists of……
    (A) hiring land by farmers on contract basis for cultivation
    (B) supply of agreed quantity of produce to agreed price to the company
    (C) company taking on lease basis farmers’ land for cultivation
    (D) processing cash crops, vegetables etc. by company and to give back to farmers
    (E) providing inputs by company to farmers for improving quality of produce
    6. Water held in the soil is not available to the plant, if it is held at tension……
    (A) 1/3 atmosphere
    (B) below 1/3 atmosphere
    (C) 1-3 atmosphere
    (D) 3-15 atmosphere
    (E) above 15 atmosphere
    7. While starting cultivation of medicinal and aromatic plants, first it should be ensured……
    (A) cultivation expenses
    (B) medicinal value of plants
    (C) availability of processing unit
    (D) location of the farm
    (E) availability of assured profitable market
    8. West Coast Tall (WCT) is a variety of……
    (A) Paddy
    (B) Cashew
    (C) Coconut
    (D) Arecanut
    (E) Coco
    9. The phenomenon of Heterosis has been most commercially exploited first in……
    (A) Rice
    (B) Wheat
    (C) Maize
    (D) Sugarcane
    (E) Tobacco
    10. Processed meat and poultry products have good market. However, their export is mainly hampered due to……
    (A) processing not as per demand
    (B) breeds are not suitable for export
    (C) no proper transport conditions
    (D) unhygienic conditions of slaughter houses and animal diseases
    (E) domestic market is available easily
    11. Arabica is a type of……
    (A) flower
    (B) horse
    (C) coffee
    (D) vegetable
    (E) fodder
    12. Vermicompost is prepared with the help of following……
    (A) Bacteria
    (B) Earthworms
    (C) Ants
    (D) Virus
    (E) Fungus
    13. The average carbon/nitrogen ratio of soils is generally……
    (A) 25 : 1
    (B) 5 : 1
    (C) 30 : 1
    (D) 14 : 1
    (E) None of these
    14. In case of Drip irrigation which of the following advantage is observed ?
    (A) It saves water
    (B) Root system of plant remains in upper layer of soil
    (C) Plastic tubes are not harmed by rats
    (D) Life of drip irrigation is very long
    (E) Where there is lot of rainfall, there are no limitation to such system
    15. If PE denotes monthly average value of potential evapo–transpiration and R stands for monthly average rainfall,the period having PE/4 greater than or equal to R,is designated as……
    (A) Moist
    (B) Humid
    (C) Moderately Dry
    (D) Severe Drought
    (E) Dry
    16. The National Agricultural Insurance Scheme in its first two years of operation envisaged to cover……
    (A) all crops-grown by small and marginal farmers only
    (B) all crops-cultivated with the help of crop loans only irrespective of the size of holding of the borrowers
    (C) all food crops-cultivated by all types of farmers
    (D) only horticultural crops
    (E) only seven commercial crops-grown under contract farming system
    17. Which one of the following breeds of sheep produces superior carpet wool in India?
    (A) Nellore
    (B) Nilgiri
    (C) Sonadi
    (D) Dorset
    (E) Jaisalmeri
    18. Which one of the following is a European Species of honeybee successfully introduced in India?
    (A) Apis mellifera
    (B) Apis florea
    (C) Apis dorsata
    (D) Apis cerana
    (E) Apis melipona
    19. Which one of the following Indian States/Union Territories accounts for the largest quantity of shrimp production per annum, among all the states of India?(A) West Bengal
    (B) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
    (C) Orissa
    (D) Kerala
    (E) None of these
    20. The hybrid of which one of the following crops was evolved by India using modern DNA techniques and released in February 2005?
    (A) Ricinus communis
    (B) Solgum vulgare
    (C) Pennisetum typhoides
    (D) Arachis hypogaea
    (E) India has not released any such hybrid so far
    21. As per the WTO Uruguay Round Agreement the domestic support creating trade distorting effect on agricultural commodities are included in……(A) Green Box
    (B) Amber Box
    (C) Pink Box
    (D) Blue Box
    (E) None of these
    22. Which one of the following is the name of the nematode, which lives as internal parasite of buds and foliage of Chrysanthemum and strawberry and causes distortions and crinkling of foliage,and leaf spots?
    (A) Aphelenchoides besseyi
    (B) Pratilenchus thornei
    (C) Meloidogyne incognita
    (D) Aphelenchoides ritzemabosi
    (E) None of these
    23. Which of the following materials do not fit into the list of the raw materials used for feeding the earthworms in the scientific management of Vermiculture?(A) Grass Clippings
    (B) Curd
    (C) Carrot tops
    (D) Lettuce leaves
    (E) All are useful
    24. A small dairy farm daily produces 100 kilograms of average quality buffalo milk and sells it to an organised dairy at the rate of Rs. 100 per kilogram of total solids contained in the milk.How much would be the daily gross income of the farm from the sale of milk?
    (A) Between Rs. 2,000 and Rs. 2,200
    (B) Between Rs. 1,250 and Rs. 1,400
    (C) Between Rs. 700 and Rs. 825
    (D) Between Rs. 1,000 and Rs. 1,100
    (E) Between Rs. 1,650 and Rs. 1,850
    25. What would be the most probable date of giving the delivery of one day old chicks by a hatchery farmer, who has put the fertile eggs of hen on his well functioning incubator on First of January?(A) February 20
    (B) February 5
    (C) January 29
    (D) January 22
    (E) January 15
    26. Which one of the following crops is sensitive to salt as well as boron in soil and water?
    (A) Grape
    (B) Sugar beet
    (C) Carrot
    (D) Cotton
    (E) None of these
    27. Which one of the following ornamental plants is a native of India and has been introduced into several countries from India?(A) Gladiolus
    (B) Orchids
    (C) Bougainvillea
    (D) Marigold
    (E) None of these
    28. How much area could be covered for giving one irrigation of 3" depth by a pumpset of one cusec output in the operation of 600 hours, if the water conveyance efficiency is 80 percent?
    (A) 180 acres
    (B) 320 acres
    (C) 240 acres
    (D) 160 acres
    (E) None of these
    29. If in a water tank,the water pressure is 5 kg/cm2, then, pressure head would be:
    (A) 50 m
    (B) 10 m
    (C) 20 m
    (D) 5 m
    (E) None of these
    30. Approximately how many eggs does a female silkworm lay in 24 hours after the proper copulation with the male moth in India?
    (A) 200
    (B) 1200
    (C) 100
    (D) 400
    (E) None of these
    31. The causal organism of Ranikhet disease of fowls is……
    (A) Pasteurella multocida
    (B) Brucella melitensis
    (C) Clorstridium chauvoei
    (D) Sporoltrix schenkii
    (E) None of these
    32. Which one of the following is the name of self-fruitful variety of Prunus domestica grown in India ?
    (A) Virginia Gold
    (B) Santa Rosa
    (C) Grand Duke
    (D) Rome Beauty
    (E) None of these
    33. Other things being suitable, what level of temperature is considered ideal for optimum growth of banana crop?(A) 36°C
    (B) 18°C
    (C) 30°C
    (D) 12°C
    (E) 27°C
    34. The deficiency of which one of the following vitamins in the ration of Poultry birds increases the Coagulation time of blood and creates the danger of haemorrhage?(A) Vitamin A
    (B) Vitamin B1
    (C) Vitamin K
    (D) Vitamin D
    (E) Vitamin B6
    35. Which one of the following commodities does fall within the scope of the activities of National Horticulture Mission in India?(A) Tomato
    (B) Arecanut
    (C) Cashewnut
    (D) Coconut
    (E) All above horticultural crops
    36. Which one of the following is a species of grasses suitable for soil conservation of ravine lands and the land affected by shifting cultivation?(A) Pennisetum polystachyon
    (B) Cenchurus setigerus
    (C) Eulalioposis binata
    (D) Lasiurus sindicus
    (E) Penicum antidotale
    37. Which one of the following is the name of a dual purpose Indian cattle breed, which has been exported widely to Latin American countries in the past?(A) Gir
    (B) Kankrej
    (C) Tharparkar
    (D) Nagauri
    (E) None of these
    38. Iodine deficiency in the Sow’s ratio during pregnancy would be reflected through the symptom of……(A) Lactation failure
    (B) Poor reproduction
    (C) Birth of dead or weak piglets
    (D) Birth of hairless piglets
    (E) Birth of blind piglets
    39. Which one of the following states has the largest area under Forest cover among all the states given in the list?(A) Andhra Pradesh
    (B) Assam
    (C) Himachal Pradesh
    (D) Mizoram
    (E) Rajasthan
    40. In the literature on the development of GMO crops, which one of the following crops is among those crops that have been designated as Orphan Crops?(A) Soybean
    (B) Corn
    (C) Cowpea
    (D) Canola
    (E) None of these
    41. Which one of the following would be the probable date of kidding for a she-goat that has been successfully serviced on First of March ?(All dates belong to the same year)
    (A) June 12
    (B) July 29
    (C) August 28
    (D) September 15
    (E) May 30
    42. In India, which one of the following should be considered the right combination of the age in days and live body weight in kg for a lamb for its weaning?
    (A) 20 days to 30 days and 6 kg to 7 kg
    (B) 45 days to 60 days and 8 kg to 10 kg
    (C) 105 days to 120 days and 18 kg to 21 kg
    (D) 75 days to 90 days and 12 kg to 15 kg
    (E) 55 days to 70 days and 9 kg to 11 kg
    43. What is the causal organism of Powdery mildew of Ricinus communis?
    (A) Sphacelotheca reiliana
    (B) Claviceps microcephala
    (C) Leveillula taurica
    (D) Puccinia carthami
    (E) Fusarium annuum
    44. Which one of the following countries has been the largest importer of floriculture products; especially rose and lotus flowers in terms of value from India over last five years among all the countries given in the list ?
    (A) Japan
    (B) Italy
    (C) Netherlands
    (D) UAE
    (E) USA
    45. As a good management practice recommended for the growing cattle in India, what should be the daily requirement of TDN for a cattle of 200 kg live body weight?
    (A) 3•2 kg
    (B) 1•8 kg
    (C) 2•4 kg
    (D) 4•0 kg
    (E) 0•9 kg
    46. Milk fever in cattle is caused due to the deficiency of :
    (A) Ca
    (B) Fe
    (C) Vit. ‘D’
    (D) N
    (E) None of these
    47. The cake of which one of the following materials prepared with the comparable processing
    technology, contains the largest percentage of ‘N’ plant nutrient among all the materials given in the list?
    (A) Coconut
    (B) Neem
    (C) Palm nut
    (D) Mahua
    (E) Karanj
    48. In respect of total foodgrains production during 2007-08 in India, which is correct in production (million tonnes)?
    (A) 230•67
    (B) 207•00
    (C) 217•85
    (D) 200•00
    (E) None of these
    49. Which one of the following feeding material is usually relished by the goats in India?
    (A) Hay prepared from forest grasses
    (B) Straw of Sorghum vulgare
    (C) Silage of Sorghum vulgare
    (D) Straw of Phaseolus aureus
    (E) None of these
    50. During last five years, which of the following Institutions have extended the largest amount of fresh credit for agriculture in India among all the institutions given in the list?
    (A) NABARD (Direct credit)
    (B) Commercial Banks
    (C) Cooperative Banks
    (D) Primary Agricultural Credit Societies
    (E) Regional Rural Banks and Local Area Banks

    Answers :
    1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (E) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (E) 7. (E) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (D) 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (A) 15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (E) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (E) 21. (E) 22. (D) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (D) 26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (A) 30. (B) 31. (E) 32. (B) 33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (E) 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (B) 41. (C) 42. (D) 43. (C) 44. (E) 45. (B) 46. (A) 47. (B) 48. (A) 49. (D) 50. (E)

     

    Dena Bank Clerk Exam Solved Paper

    General English 

    (Exam Held On 08-03-2009)


    Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
    Bhaskar was a wealthy, wordly wise merchant. On his deathbed, he called his only son, Nakul, and gave him some advice. “When you do business and travel to an unknown land, make sure you know the local culture well. Try to gain as much information as you can. This and presence of mind will come to your rescue.” Bhaskar died a few days later and Nakul began looking after the business. Once, he travelled by ship to a distant country where he stayed at an inn. He began talking to the owner and ended up telling him all about his life and the business had come to conduct.

    The following day, Nakul was heading to the bustling market when a one armed man rushed up to him and said, “Your father took one of my arms as a loan. You must return it to me.” Not knowing what to do, Nakul asked the man to meet him the next day. A little later, a woman came upto Nakul and said, “Your father married me and would send me money every month. This responsibility is now yours.” Again Nakul asked for a day’s respite and walked on. On the way he stopped at a tavern and ate breakfast. While paying for his meal the owner said, “The only payment I want is for you to make me happy.” Though he had to pay only two coins, Nakul gave the man five, but the man still maintained that he was unhappy. That evening Nakul met a man who invited him to a game of dice. Unaware they were playing with a trick dice, he lost every game. The winner set him an unusual condition, “Drink all the water in the sea or give me all the goods on your ship.” Nakul said he would give him his decision the next day. That night as Nakul lay on his bed, he remembered his father’s words, “In a foreign land only your wits will come to your aid.”
    The next morning, as soon as he reached the marketplace, the one armed man appeared. Nakul smiled when he saw him and said, “My father took many such loans and our house is full of hands. I shall take your other arm, find the matching one and repay you.” The man ran away petrified. He then approached the woman who claimed to have been married to his father. “My father was wrong not to tell us about you. Come home with me and help my mother in the fields.” The woman left without a word. Next, Nakul went to the tavern and standing outside shouted, “Hail the King ! Your king is great !” “I am happy to hear you say that”, was the only response the tavern owner could give.“ If you are happy,” continued Nakul, “I have paid for my meal.” Nakul then sought out the man who had won at dice the previous night. “I shall gladly drink all the water in the sea provided you bring me the water in jugs.” The man made a quick getaway when he heard this. Nakul returned home after conducting much business. He was far richer in wisdom too.
    1. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
    (1) Nakul preferred sailing to working in the fields with his mother.
    (2) Bhaskar’s second wife was a greedy woman.
    (3) Bhaskar did not have faith in Nakul’s ability to successfully run the business.
    (A) None
    (B) Only (1)
    (C) Both (1) & (3)
    (D) Both (2) & (3)
    (E) Only (2)
    2. Why did Nakul visit a far-away country ?
    (A) It was his father’s final request
    (B) To acquire knowledge about a different culture
    (C) To mee some of his father’s acquaintances
    (D) To trade and do business
    (E) None of these
    3. How did Nakul manage to deal with the people who tried to swindle him ?
    (1) His father provided him with the solution in a dream.
    (2) He threatened them with dire punishment.
    (3) He gave into their demands and paid them off.
    (A) None
    (B) Only (2)
    (C) Only (3)
    (D) Both (1) & (2)
    (E) None of these
    4. Why wasn’t Nakul able to win any of the games while gambling ?
    (A) He was not a skilful player
    (B) He was distracted while playing
    (C) The other players were cheating with a trick dice
    (D) He was not well versed with local rules
    (E) None of these
    5. Which of the following best describes the one armed man’s reaction when he met Nakul for the second time ?
    (A) He was upset because Nakul refused to honour the debt his father owed him
    (B) He was angry at Nakul for laughing at his plight
    (C) He was frightened since Nakul had threatened to cut-off his remaining arm
    (D) He was worried about what action Nakul would take against him for trying to cheat him
    (E) He admired Nakul for outwitting him.
    6. Why did Nakul confide in the innkeeper ?
    (A) The innkeeper was an old friend of his father
    (B) He was drunk and unaware he was confiding in a stranger
    (C) He was still upset by his father’s death and wanted to talk to someone
    (D) By confiding in the innkeeper he hoped to get information about the local customs
    (E) None of these
    7. Why did Nakul pay the tavern owner five coins instead of two ?
    (A) Not being familiar with the foreign currency he made a mistake
    (B) Nakul did not have the exact change
    (C) He left a tip to show his appreciation for a good meal
    (D) He thought the extra money would make the innkeeper happy
    (E) He wanted to create a favourable impression
    8. Which of the following can be said about Nakul’s father ?
    (A) He was adventurous and had travelled all over the world
    (B) He was rich and experienced in the ways of the world
    (C) He was prosperous because he had duped a lot of people
    (D) He favoured Nakul among all his children
    (E) He was poor and knew about various cultures
    9. Why did Nakul have a good opinion of the King of the faraway country ?
    (1) He encouraged trade and his subjects were prosperous.
    (2) He ensured that visitors were treated with hospitality.
    (3) There were many facilities for entertainment there.
    (A) Only (1)
    (B) Only (2)
    (C) Both (1) & (3)
    (D) Only (3)
    (E) None of these
    10. What was Nakul’s overall experience in the far-away country ?
    (A) It was an unpleasant one and he decided it would be his last trip
    (B) It was a profitable one and he learnt a lot
    (C) It was stressful and he was glad to return home
    (D) It was sad since people kept recounting memories of his father
    (E) None of these
    Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in EANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
    11. conduct
    (A) behaviour
    (B) handle
    (C) action
    (D) habits
    (E) guide
    12. respite
    (A) stop
    (B) part
    (C) delay
    (D) rest
    (E) relax
    13. unknown
    (A) undecided
    (B) anonymous
    (C) renowned
    (D) unidentified
    (E) unfamiliar
    Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
    14. appeared
    (A) evaporated
    (B) died
    (C) invisible
    (D) vanished
    (E) faded
    15. matching
    (A) duplicate
    (B) dissimilar
    (C) original
    (D) identical
    (E) single
    Directions—(Q. 16–20) In each sentence below four words have been printed in bold which are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these words may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the wrongly spelt or inappropriate word. The letter of that word is the answer. If all the words are correctly spelt and are appropriate the answer is (E), i.e., ‘All Correct.’
    16. To find a solution (A) to the problem, we met (B) daily after work and contributed (C) our ideals. (D) All Correct (E)
    17. After the presentation (A) it was clearly (B) that they were not interested (C) in financing (D) the project. All Correct (E)
    18. In my opinion it will be difficult (A) to persuade (B) the employees to accept (C) these changes (D) in the rules. All Correct (E)
    19. This is the first time that he has been selected (A) to give a speech (B) at the anual (C) conference. (D) All Correct (E)
    20. Inspite of my attempts (A) to encourage (B) him to continue (C) studying (D) he decided to take up a job All Correct (E)
    Directions—(Q. 21–25) Rearrange the following Six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
    (1) At seventy-eight her fingers became too stiff to hold a needle so she began painting.
    (2) I decided to tell this boy the story of Ann Moses.
    (3) “She began a career at eighty, so if you believe in yourself anything is possible.” I ended.
    (4) At the age of twenty-seven, a boy was discouraged about his career.
    (5) She struggled hard to raise five children by doing embroidery and working on a farm.
    (6) She went on to paint over 2,000 pictures which became famous.
    21. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
    (A) (2)
    (B) (3)
    (C) (4)
    (D) (5)
    (E) (6)
    22. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
    (A) (1)
    (B) (2)
    (C) (3)
    (D) (4)
    (E) (5)
    23. Which of the following will be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
    (A) (1)
    (B) (2)
    (C) (3)
    (D) (4)
    (E) (5)
    24. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
    (A) (2)
    (B) (3)
    (C) (4)
    (D) (5)
    (E) (6)
    25. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
    (A) (1)
    (B) (2)
    (C) (3)
    (D) (5)
    (E) (6)
    Directions—(Q. 26–30) Which of the phrases (A), (B) (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and No Correction is Required, mark (E) as the answer.
    26. During the meeting he discussed each of the suggestions and how they are could be implemented.
    (A) that they are
    (B) why they could
    (C) how it could
    (D) when there can
    (E) No Correction Required
    27. When he finished his studies, there was a lot of pressure by him joining our family business.
    (A) on him joining
    (B) in his joining
    (C) on him to join
    (D) joining
    (E) No Correction Required
    28. It is disappointment that the majority of farmers who took loans last year have failed to repay them.
    (A) is disappointment in
    (B) is disappointing that
    (C) is to disappoint
    (D) has disappointed to
    (E) No Correction Required
    29. When I studied engineering thirty years ago, there was less as ten female students in my class.
    (A) were smaller than
    (B) was little as
    (C) was lower than
    (D) were less than
    (E) No Correction Required
    30. Once the manager approves the plans, it was easy convinced the rest of the team.
    (A) was easily convinced
    (B) will be easy to convince
    (C) has easily convinced
    (D) being easy to convince
    (E) No Correction Required
    Directions—(Q. 31–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e. ‘No Error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
    31. It is sad that in (A) / our country education is (B) / available only to those (C) / whom can afford it. (D) No Error (E)
    32. I was determined (A) / to learn everything (B) / I could from the people (C) / off the village. (D) No Error (E)
    33. During the holidays (A) / I am often worked (B) / in my uncle’s shop to (C) / earn some pocket money. (D) No Error (E)
    34. Most banks did not taken (A) / her plan to set up (B) / a factory in (C) / the area seriously. (D) No Error (E)
    35. Every year we have (A) / a function where (B) / the children of our staff (C) / is awarded scholarships. (D) No Error (E)
    36. Many of the funds (A) / I needed to buy (B) / my own house were (C) / given by my father. (D) No Error (E)
    37. Since he was from (A) / the district and able to (B) / speak the language locally, (C) / they trusted him. (D) No Error (E)
    38. Every month he would (A) / meet the employees to (B) / discuss their problems (C) / and answer their questions. (D) No Error (E)
    39. I had to work full time (A) / so I could not devote (B) / as much time as (C) / I wanted to playing cricket. (D) No Error (E)
    40. He did not even (A) / have no property (B) / to sell to (C) / cover his losses. (D) No Error (E)
    Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
    I was born and …(41)… up in a village by my grandparents. We had two granaries to …(42)… the rice that
    we grew. …(43)… the better quality ‘white’ rice was kept in the granary in the front of the house, the …(44)… quality ‘red’ rice was kept in the granary at the back. We never had …(45)… money in the house, so those who came to ask for alms were given rice. My grandmother would send me to the front granary to bring rice for them, but when she cooked for …(46)… of us she would use the red rice. I was …(47)… by her behaviour.
    One day, I asked her why she did this ? She …(48)… and said something I will never forget. “…(49)… whenever you give something to somebody, give the best in you, never the second best.” …(50)… director of a foundation, if I help people today, it is because of this lesson she taught me.
    41. (A) raised
    (B) adopted
    (C) grown
    (D) brought
    (E) grew
    42. (A) pick
    (B) save
    (C) supply
    (D) cultivate
    (E) store
    43. (A) Instead
    (B) While
    (C) Yet
    (D) Therefore
    (E) For
    44. (A) less
    (B) worse
    (C) defective
    (D) inferior
    (E) best
    45. (A) plenty
    (B) vast
    (C) lots
    (D) sufficiently
    (E) much
    46. (A) all
    (B) remaining
    (C) gathering
    (D) none
    (E) those
    47. (A) puzzled
    (B) confusing
    (C) worrying
    (D) frightened
    (E) angry
    48. (A) pleased
    (B) shouted
    (C) smiled
    (D) advised
    (E) hugged
    49. (A) remember
    (B) pray
    (C) memorise
    (D) think
    (E) appeal
    50. (A) when
    (B) since
    (C) only
    (D) perhaps
    (E) as
    Answers with Explanations1. (E) 2. (D) 3. (E) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (B)
    11. (B) 12. (E) 13. (E) 14. (D) 15. (B) 16. (D) Change ‘ideals’ to ‘ideas’.
    17. (B) Change ‘clearly’ to ‘clear’.
    18. (E)
    19. (C) Change ‘anual’ to ‘annual’.
    20. (D) Change ‘studying’ to ‘study’.
    21. (E) 22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (A) 25. (D)
    26. (C) Change ‘how they are could ‘to’ how it ‘could’.
    27. (C) Change ‘by him joining’ to ‘on him to join’.
    28. (B) Change ‘is disappointment that’ to ‘is disappointing that’.
    29. (D) Change ‘was less as’ to ‘were less then’
    30. (B) Change ‘was easy convinced’ to ‘will be easy to convince’.
    31. (D) Change ‘whom’ to ‘who’
    32. (D) Change ‘off’ to ‘of’.
    33. (B) Change ‘am often worked’ to ‘often work’.
    34. (A) Change ‘did not taken’ to ‘did not take’.
    35. (D) Change ‘is’ to ‘are’.
    36. (A) Change ‘Many’ to ‘Most’.
    37. (C) Change ‘the language locally’ to ‘the local language’.
    38. (E)
    39. (D) Change ‘playing’ to ‘to play’.
    40. (A) Delete ‘did not’ It is redundant.
    41. (D) 42. (E) 43. (B) 44. (D) 45. (E) 46. (A) 47. (A) 48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (E) 



    DENA BANK CLERK EXAM 2009 MARCH

    ENGLISH LANGUAGE



    Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

    Bhaskar was a wealthy, wordly wise merchant. On his deathbed, he called his only son, Nakul, and gave him some advice. “When you do business and travel to an unknown land, make sure you know the local culture well. Try to gain as much information as you can. This and presence of mind will come to your rescue.” Bhaskar died a few days later and Nakul began looking after the business. Once, he travelled by ship to a distant country where he stayed at an inn. He began talking to the owner and ended up telling him all about his life and the business had come to conduct.

    The following day, Nakul was heading to the bustling market when a one armed man rushed up to him and said, “Your father took one of my arms as a loan. You must return it to me.” Not knowing what to do, Nakul asked the man to meet him the next day. A little later, a woman came upto Nakul and said, “Your father married me and would send me money every month. This responsibility is now yours.” Again Nakul asked for a day’s respite and walked on. On the way he stopped at a tavern and ate breakfast. While paying for his meal the owner said, “The only payment I want is for you to make me happy.” Though he had to pay only two coins, Nakul gave the man five, but the man still maintained that he was unhappy. That evening Nakul met a man who invited him to a game of dice. Unaware they were playing with a trick dice, he lost every game. The winner set him an unusual condition, “Drink all the water in the sea or give me all the goods on your ship.” Nakul said he would give him his decision the next day. That night as Nakul lay on his bed, he remembered his father’s words, “In a foreign land only your wits will come to your aid.”

    The next morning, as soon as he reached the marketplace, the one armed man appeared. Nakul smiled when he saw him and said, “My father took many such loans and our house is full of hands. I shall take your other arm, find the matching one and repay you.” The man ran away petrified. He then approached the woman who claimed to have been married to his father. “My father was wrong not to tell us about you. Come home with me and help my mother in the fields.” The woman left without a word. Next, Nakul went to the tavern and standing outside shouted, “Hail the King ! Your king is great !” “I am happy to hear you say that”, was the only response the tavern owner could give.“ If you are happy,” continued Nakul, “I have paid for my meal.” Nakul then sought out the man who had won at dice the previous night. “I shall gladly drink all the water in the sea provided you bring me the water in jugs.” The man made a quick getaway when he heard this. Nakul returned home after conducting much business. He was far richer in wisdom too.

    1. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
    (1) Nakul preferred sailing to working in the fields with his mother.
    (2) Bhaskar’s second wife was a greedy woman.
    (3) Bhaskar did not have faith in Nakul’s ability to successfully run the business.
    (A) None
    (B) Only (1)
    (C) Both (1) & (3)
    (D) Both (2) & (3)
    (E) Only (2)

    2. Why did Nakul visit a far-away country ?
    (A) It was his father’s final request
    (B) To acquire knowledge about a different culture
    (C) To mee some of his father’s acquaintances
    (D) To trade and do business
    (E) None of these

    3. How did Nakul manage to deal with the people who tried to swindle him ?
    (1) His father provided him with the solution in a dream.
    (2) He threatened them with dire punishment.
    (3) He gave into their demands and paid them off.
    (A) None
    (B) Only (2)
    (C) Only (3)
    (D) Both (1) & (2)
    (E) None of these

    4. Why wasn’t Nakul able to win any of the games while gambling ?
    (A) He was not a skilful player
    (B) He was distracted while playing
    (C) The other players were cheating with a trick dice
    (D) He was not well versed with local rules
    (E) None of these

    5. Which of the following best describes the one armed man’s reaction when he met Nakul for the second time ?
    (A) He was upset because Nakul refused to honour the debt his father owed him
    (B) He was angry at Nakul for laughing at his plight
    (C) He was frightened since Nakul had threatened to cut-off his remaining arm
    (D) He was worried about what action Nakul would take against him for trying to cheat him
    (E) He admired Nakul for outwitting him.

    6. Why did Nakul confide in the innkeeper ?
    (A) The innkeeper was an old friend of his father
    (B) He was drunk and unaware he was confiding in a stranger
    (C) He was still upset by his father’s death and wanted to talk to someone
    (D) By confiding in the innkeeper he hoped to get information about the local customs
    (E) None of these

    7. Why did Nakul pay the tavern owner five coins instead of two ?
    (A) Not being familiar with the foreign currency he made a mistake
    (B) Nakul did not have the exact change
    (C) He left a tip to show his appreciation for a good meal
    (D) He thought the extra money would make the innkeeper happy
    (E) He wanted to create a favourable impression

    8. Which of the following can be said about Nakul’s father ?
    (A) He was adventurous and had travelled all over the world
    (B) He was rich and experienced in the ways of the world
    (C) He was prosperous because he had duped a lot of people
    (D) He favoured Nakul among all his children
    (E) He was poor and knew about various cultures

    9. Why did Nakul have a good opinion of the King of the faraway country ?
    (1) He encouraged trade and his subjects were prosperous.
    (2) He ensured that visitors were treated with hospitality.
    (3) There were many facilities for entertainment there.
    (A) Only (1)
    (B) Only (2)
    (C) Both (1) & (3)
    (D) Only (3)
    (E) None of these

    10. What was Nakul’s overall experience in the far-away country ?
    (A) It was an unpleasant one and he decided it would be his last trip
    (B) It was a profitable one and he learnt a lot
    (C) It was stressful and he was glad to return home
    (D) It was sad since people kept recounting memories of his father
    (E) None of these

    Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR inEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

    11. conduct
    (A) behaviour
    (B) handle
    (C) action
    (D) habits
    (E) guide

    12. respite
    (A) stop
    (B) part
    (C) delay
    (D) rest
    (E) relax

    13. unknown
    (A) undecided
    (B) anonymous
    (C) renowned
    (D) unidentified
    (E) unfamiliar

    Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITEin MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

    14. appeared
    (A) evaporated
    (B) died
    (C) invisible
    (D) vanished
    (E) faded

    15. matching
    (A) duplicate
    (B) dissimilar
    (C) original
    (D) identical
    (E) single

    Directions—(Q. 16–20) In each sentence below four words have been printed in bold which are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these words may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the wrongly spelt or inappropriate word. The letter of that word is the answer. If all the words are correctly spelt and are appropriate the answer is (E), i.e., ‘All Correct.’

    16. To find a solution (A) to the problem, we met (B) daily after work and contributed (C) our ideals. (D) All Correct (E)

    17. After the presentation (A) it was clearly (B) that they were notinterested (C) in financing (D) the project. All Correct (E)

    18. In my opinion it will be difficult (A) to persuade (B) the employees to accept (C) these changes (D) in the rules. All Correct (E)

    19. This is the first time that he has been selected (A) to give aspeech (B) at the anual (C) conference. (D) All Correct (E)

    20. Inspite of my attempts (A) to encourage (B) him to continue(C) studying (D) he decided to take up a job All Correct (E)

    Directions—(Q. 21–25) Rearrange the following Six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
    (1) At seventy-eight her fingers became too stiff to hold a needle so she began painting.
    (2) I decided to tell this boy the story of Ann Moses.
    (3) “She began a career at eighty, so if you believe in yourself anything is possible.” I ended.
    (4) At the age of twenty-seven, a boy was discouraged about his career.
    (5) She struggled hard to raise five children by doing embroidery and working on a farm.
    (6) She went on to paint over 2,000 pictures which became famous.

    21. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
    (A) (2)
    (B) (3)
    (C) (4)
    (D) (5)
    (E) (6)

    22. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
    (A) (1)
    (B) (2)
    (C) (3)
    (D) (4)
    (E) (5)

    23. Which of the following will be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
    (A) (1)
    (B) (2)
    (C) (3)
    (D) (4)
    (E) (5)

    24. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
    (A) (2)
    (B) (3)
    (C) (4)
    (D) (5)
    (E) (6)

    25. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
    (A) (1)
    (B) (2)
    (C) (3)
    (D) (5)
    (E) (6)

    Directions—(Q. 26–30) Which of the phrases (A), (B) (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and No Correction is Required, mark (E) as the answer.

    26. During the meeting he discussed each of the suggestions andhow they are could be implemented.
    (A) that they are
    (B) why they could
    (C) how it could
    (D) when there can
    (E) No Correction Required

    27. When he finished his studies, there was a lot of pressure by him joining our family business.
    (A) on him joining
    (B) in his joining
    (C) on him to join
    (D) joining
    (E) No Correction Required

    28. It is disappointment that the majority of farmers who took loans last year have failed to repay them.
    (A) is disappointment in
    (B) is disappointing that
    (C) is to disappoint
    (D) has disappointed to
    (E) No Correction Required

    29. When I studied engineering thirty years ago, there was less asten female students in my class.
    (A) were smaller than
    (B) was little as
    (C) was lower than
    (D) were less than
    (E) No Correction Required

    30. Once the manager approves the plans, it was easy convincedthe rest of the team.
    (A) was easily convinced
    (B) will be easy to convince
    (C) has easily convinced
    (D) being easy to convince
    (E) No Correction Required

    Directions—(Q. 31–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e. ‘No Error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

    31. It is sad that in (A) / our country education is (B) / available only to those (C) / whom can afford it. (D) No Error (E)

    32. I was determined (A) / to learn everything (B) / I could from the people (C) / off the village. (D) No Error (E)

    33. During the holidays (A) / I am often worked (B) / in my uncle’s shop to (C) / earn some pocket money. (D) No Error (E)

    34. Most banks did not taken (A) / her plan to set up (B) / a factory in (C) / the area seriously. (D) No Error (E)

    35. Every year we have (A) / a function where (B) / the children of our staff (C) / is awarded scholarships. (D) No Error (E)

    36. Many of the funds (A) / I needed to buy (B) / my own house were (C) / given by my father. (D) No Error (E)

    37. Since he was from (A) / the district and able to (B) / speak the language locally, (C) / they trusted him. (D) No Error (E)

    38. Every month he would (A) / meet the employees to (B) / discuss their problems (C) / and answer their questions. (D) No Error (E)

    39. I had to work full time (A) / so I could not devote (B) / as much time as (C) / I wanted to playing cricket. (D) No Error (E)

    40. He did not even (A) / have no property (B) / to sell to (C) / cover his losses. (D) No Error (E)

    Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

    I was born and …(41)… up in a village by my grandparents. We had two granaries to …(42)… the rice that
    we grew. …(43)… the better quality ‘white’ rice was kept in the granary in the front of the house, the …(44)… quality ‘red’ rice was kept in the granary at the back. We never had …(45)… money in the house, so those who came to ask for alms were given rice. My grandmother would send me to the front granary to bring rice for them, but when she cooked for …(46)… of us she would use the red rice. I was …(47)… by her behaviour.

    One day, I asked her why she did this ? She …(48)… and said something I will never forget. “…(49)… whenever you give something to somebody, give the best in you, never the second best.” …(50)… director of a foundation, if I help people today, it is because of this lesson she taught me.

    41. (A) raised
    (B) adopted
    (C) grown
    (D) brought
    (E) grew

    42. (A) pick
    (B) save
    (C) supply
    (D) cultivate
    (E) store

    43. (A) Instead
    (B) While
    (C) Yet
    (D) Therefore
    (E) For

    44. (A) less
    (B) worse
    (C) defective
    (D) inferior
    (E) best

    45. (A) plenty
    (B) vast
    (C) lots
    (D) sufficiently
    (E) much

    46. (A) all
    (B) remaining
    (C) gathering
    (D) none
    (E) those

    47. (A) puzzled
    (B) confusing
    (C) worrying
    (D) frightened
    (E) angry

    48. (A) pleased
    (B) shouted
    (C) smiled
    (D) advised
    (E) hugged

    49. (A) remember
    (B) pray
    (C) memorise
    (D) think
    (E) appeal

    50. (A) when
    (B) since
    (C) only
    (D) perhaps
    (E) as



    Answers
    1. (E) 2. (D) 3. (E) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (B)
    11. (B) 12. (E) 13. (E) 14. (D) 15. (B) 16. (D) Change ‘ideals’ to ‘ideas’.
    17. (B) Change ‘clearly’ to ‘clear’.
    18. (E)
    19. (C) Change ‘anual’ to ‘annual’.
    20. (D) Change ‘studying’ to ‘study’.
    21. (E) 22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (A) 25. (D)
    26. (C) Change ‘how they are could ‘to’ how it ‘could’.
    27. (C) Change ‘by him joining’ to ‘on him to join’.
    28. (B) Change ‘is disappointment that’ to ‘is disappointing that’.
    29. (D) Change ‘was less as’ to ‘were less then’
    30. (B) Change ‘was easy convinced’ to ‘will be easy to convince’.
    31. (D) Change ‘whom’ to ‘who’
    32. (D) Change ‘off’ to ‘of’.
    33. (B) Change ‘am often worked’ to ‘often work’.
    34. (A) Change ‘did not taken’ to ‘did not take’.
    35. (D) Change ‘is’ to ‘are’.
    36. (A) Change ‘Many’ to ‘Most’.
    37. (C) Change ‘the language locally’ to ‘the local language’.
    38. (E)
    39. (D) Change ‘playing’ to ‘to play’.
    40. (A) Delete ‘did not’ It is redundant.
    41. (D) 42. (E) 43. (B) 44. (D) 45. (E) 46. (A) 47. (A) 48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (E)

     

     

    DENA BANK AO EXAM 2008

    Dena Bank Agriculture Officers Exam 2008 solved question paper

    (on 2-9-2008)

    Recruitment:Agriculture officers



    1. Which of the following crops is tolerant of soil on water salinity ?
    (A) Date-palm
    (B) Cabbage
    (C) Orange
    (D) Grapes
    (E) Peas
    2. How many minimum tractor hours per year of 40 H.P. power should be used approximately for purely agricultural use and not for custom service unit to become viable unit ?
    (A) 500 hrs.
    (B) 600 hrs.
    (C) 1000 hrs.
    (D) 1500 hrs.
    (E) 2000 hrs.

    3. Drip-irrigation has been most successful for……
    (A) Rice
    (B) Wheat
    (C) Berseem
    (D) Lucerne
    (E) Grape

    4. The percentage of Nitrogen (N) in DAP is……
    (A) 46
    (B) 26
    (C) 18
    (D) 80
    (E) 30

    5. Contract farming consists of……
    (A) hiring land by farmers on contract basis for cultivation
    (B) supply of agreed quantity of produce to agreed price to the company
    (C) company taking on lease basis farmers’ land for cultivation
    (D) processing cash crops, vegetables etc. by company and to give back to farmers
    (E) providing inputs by company to farmers for improving quality of produce

    6. Water held in the soil is not available to the plant, if it is held at tension……
    (A) 1/3 atmosphere
    (B) below 1/3 atmosphere
    (C) 1-3 atmosphere
    (D) 3-15 atmosphere
    (E) above 15 atmosphere

    7. While starting cultivation of medicinal and aromatic plants, first it should be ensured……
    (A) cultivation expenses
    (B) medicinal value of plants
    (C) availability of processing unit
    (D) location of the farm
    (E) availability of assured profitable market

    8. West Coast Tall (WCT) is a variety of……
    (A) Paddy
    (B) Cashew
    (C) Coconut
    (D) Arecanut
    (E) Coco

    9. The phenomenon of Heterosis has been most commercially exploited first in……
    (A) Rice
    (B) Wheat
    (C) Maize
    (D) Sugarcane
    (E) Tobacco

    10. Processed meat and poultry products have good market. However, their export is mainly hampered due to……
    (A) processing not as per demand
    (B) breeds are not suitable for export
    (C) no proper transport conditions
    (D) unhygienic conditions of slaughter houses and animal diseases
    (E) domestic market is available easily

    11. Arabica is a type of……
    (A) flower
    (B) horse
    (C) coffee
    (D) vegetable
    (E) fodder

    12. Vermicompost is prepared with the help of following……
    (A) Bacteria
    (B) Earthworms
    (C) Ants
    (D) Virus
    (E) Fungus

    13. The average carbon / nitrogen ratio of soils is generally……
    (A) 25 : 1
    (B) 5 : 1
    (C) 30 : 1
    (D) 14 : 1
    (E) None of these

    14. In case of Drip irrigation which of the following advantage is observed ?
    (A) It saves water
    (B) Root system of plant remains in upper layer of soil
    (C) Plastic tubes are not harmed by rats
    (D) Life of drip irrigation is very long
    (E) Where there is lot of rainfall, there are no limitation to such system

    15. If PE denotes monthly average value of potential evapo–transpiration and R stands for monthly average rainfall, the period having PE/4 greater than or equal to R, is designated as……
    (A) Moist
    (B) Humid
    (C) Moderately Dry
    (D) Severe Drought
    (E) Dry

    16. The National Agricultural Insurance Scheme in its first two years of operation envisaged to cover……
    (A) all crops-grown by small and marginal farmers only
    (B) all crops-cultivated with the help of crop loans only irrespective of the size of holding of the borrowers
    (C) all food crops-cultivated by all types of farmers
    (D) only horticultural crops
    (E) only seven commercial crops-grown under contract farming system

    17. Which one of the following breeds of sheep produces superior carpet wool in India ?
    (A) Nellore
    (B) Nilgiri
    (C) Sonadi
    (D) Dorset
    (E) Jaisalmeri

    18. Which one of the following is a European Species of honeybee successfully introduced in India ?
    (A) Apis mellifera
    (B) Apis florea
    (C) Apis dorsata
    (D) Apis cerana
    (E) Apis melipona

    19. Which one of the following Indian States/Union Territories accounts for the largest quantity of shrimp production per annum, among all the states of India ?
    (A) West Bengal
    (B) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
    (C) Orissa
    (D) Kerala
    (E) None of these

    20. The hybrid of which one of the following crops was evolved by India using modern DNA techniques and released in February 2005 ?
    (A) Ricinus communis
    (B) Solgum vulgare
    (C) Pennisetum typhoides
    (D) Arachis hypogaea
    (E) India has not released any such hybrid so far

    21. As per the WTO Uruguay Round Agreement the domestic support creating trade distorting effect on agricultural commodities are included in……
    (A) Green Box
    (B) Amber Box
    (C) Pink Box
    (D) Blue Box
    (E) None of these

    22. Which one of the following is the name of the nematode, which lives as internal parasite of buds and foliage of Chrysanthemum and strawberry and causes distortions and crinkling of foliage, and leaf spots ?
    (A) Aphelenchoides besseyi
    (B) Pratilenchus thornei
    (C) Meloidogyne incognita
    (D) Aphelenchoides ritzemabosi
    (E) None of these

    23. Which of the following materials do not fit into the list of the raw materials used for feeding the earthworms in the scientific management of Vermiculture ?
    (A) Grass Clippings
    (B) Curd
    (C) Carrot tops
    (D) Lettuce leaves
    (E) All are useful

    24. A small dairy farm daily produces 100 kilograms of average quality buffalo milk and sells it to an organised dairy at the rate of Rs. 100 per kilogram of total solids contained in the milk. How much would be the daily gross income of the farm from the sale of milk ?
    (A) Between Rs. 2,000 and Rs. 2,200
    (B) Between Rs. 1,250 and Rs. 1,400
    (C) Between Rs. 700 and Rs. 825
    (D) Between Rs. 1,000 and Rs. 1,100
    (E) Between Rs. 1,650 and Rs. 1,850

    25. What would be the most probable date of giving the delivery of one day old chicks by a hatchery farmer, who has put the fertile eggs of hen on his well functioning incubator on First of January ?
    (A) February 20
    (B) February 5
    (C) January 29
    (D) January 22
    (E) January 15

    26. Which one of the following crops is sensitive to salt as well as boron in soil and water ?
    (A) Grape
    (B) Sugar beet
    (C) Carrot
    (D) Cotton
    (E) None of these

    27. Which one of the following ornamental plants is a native of India and has been introduced into several countries from India ?
    (A) Gladiolus
    (B) Orchids
    (C) Bougainvillea
    (D) Marigold
    (E) None of these

    28. How much area could be covered for giving one irrigation of 3″ depth by a pumpset of one cusec output in the operation of 600 hours, if the water conveyance efficiency is 80 per cent ?
    (A) 180 acres
    (B) 320 acres
    (C) 240 acres
    (D) 160 acres
    (E) None of these

    29. If in a water tank, the water pressure is 5 kg/cm2, then, pressure head would be :
    (A) 50 m
    (B) 10 m
    (C) 20 m
    (D) 5 m
    (E) None of these

    30. Approximately how many eggs does a female silkworm lay in 24 hours after the proper copulation with the male moth in India ?
    (A) 200
    (B) 1200
    (C) 100
    (D) 400
    (E) None of these

    31. The causal organism of Ranikhet disease of fowls is……
    (A) Pasteurella multocida
    (B) Brucella melitensis
    (C) Clorstridium chauvoei
    (D) Sporoltrix schenkii
    (E) None of these

    32. Which one of the following is the name of self-fruitful variety of Prunus domestica grown in India ?
    (A) Virginia Gold
    (B) Santa Rosa
    (C) Grand Duke
    (D) Rome Beauty
    (E) None of these

    33. Other things being suitable, what level of temperature is considered ideal for optimum growth of banana crop ?
    (A) 36°C
    (B) 18°C
    (C) 30°C
    (D) 12°C
    (E) 27°C

    34. The deficiency of which one of the following vitamins in the ration of Poultry birds increases the Coagulation time of blood and creates the danger of haemorrhage ?
    (A) Vitamin A
    (B) Vitamin B1
    (C) Vitamin K
    (D) Vitamin D
    (E) Vitamin B6

    35. Which one of the following commodities does fall within the scope of the activities of National Horticulture Mission in India ?
    (A) Tomato
    (B) Arecanut
    (C) Cashewnut
    (D) Coconut
    (E) All above horticultural crops

    36. Which one of the following is a species of grasses suitable for soil conservation of ravine lands and the land affected by shifting cultivation ?
    (A) Pennisetum polystachyon
    (B) Cenchurus setigerus
    (C) Eulalioposis binata
    (D) Lasiurus sindicus
    (E) Penicum antidotale

    37. Which one of the following is the name of a dual purpose Indian cattle breed, which has been exported widely to Latin American countries in the past ?
    (A) Gir
    (B) Kankrej
    (C) Tharparkar
    (D) Nagauri
    (E) None of these

    38. Iodine deficiency in the Sow’s ratio during pregnancy would be reflected through the symptom of……
    (A) Lactation failure
    (B) Poor reproduction
    (C) Birth of dead or weak piglets
    (D) Birth of hairless piglets
    (E) Birth of blind piglets

    39. Which one of the following states has the largest area under Forest cover among all the states given in the list ?
    (A) Andhra Pradesh
    (B) Assam
    (C) Himachal Pradesh
    (D) Mizoram
    (E) Rajasthan

    40. In the literature on the development of GMO crops, which one of the following crops is among those crops that have been designated as Orphan Crops ?
    (A) Soybean
    (B) Corn
    (C) Cowpea
    (D) Canola
    (E) None of these

    41. Which one of the following would be the probable date of kidding for a she-goat that has been successfully serviced on First of March ? (All dates belong to the same year)
    (A) June 12
    (B) July 29
    (C) August 28
    (D) September 15
    (E) May 30

    42. In India, which one of the following should be considered the right combination of the age in days and live body weight in kg for a lamb for its weaning ?
    (A) 20 days to 30 days and 6 kg to 7 kg
    (B) 45 days to 60 days and 8 kg to 10 kg
    (C) 105 days to 120 days and 18 kg to 21 kg
    (D) 75 days to 90 days and 12 kg to 15 kg
    (E) 55 days to 70 days and 9 kg to 11 kg

    43. What is the causal organism of Powdery mildew of Ricinus communis ?
    (A) Sphacelotheca reiliana
    (B) Claviceps microcephala
    (C) Leveillula taurica
    (D) Puccinia carthami
    (E) Fusarium annuum

    44. Which one of the following countries has been the largest importer of floriculture products; especially rose and lotus flowers in terms of value from India over last five years among all the countries given in the list ?
    (A) Japan
    (B) Italy
    (C) Netherlands
    (D) UAE
    (E) USA

    45. As a good management practice recommended for the growing cattle in India, what should be the daily requirement of TDN for a cattle of 200 kg live body weight ?
    (A) 3•2 kg
    (B) 1•8 kg
    (C) 2•4 kg
    (D) 4•0 kg
    (E) 0•9 kg

    46. Milk fever in cattle is caused due to the deficiency of :
    (A) Ca
    (B) Fe
    (C) Vit. ‘D’
    (D) N
    (E) None of these

    47. The cake of which one of the following materials prepared with the comparable processing technology, contains the largest percentage of ‘N’ plant nutrient among all the materials given in the list ?
    (A) Coconut
    (B) Neem
    (C) Palm nut
    (D) Mahua
    (E) Karanj

    48. In respect of total foodgrains production during 2007-08 in India, which is correct in production (million tonnes) ?
    (A) 230•67
    (B) 207•00
    (C) 217•85
    (D) 200•00
    (E) None of these

    49. Which one of the following feeding material is usually relished by the goats in India ?
    (A) Hay prepared from forest grasses
    (B) Straw of Sorghum vulgare
    (C) Silage of Sorghum vulgare
    (D) Straw of Phaseolus aureus
    (E) None of these

    50. During last five years, which of the following Institutions have extended the largest amount of fresh credit for agriculture in India among all the institutions given in the list ?
    (A) NABARD (Direct credit)
    (B) Commercial Banks
    (C) Cooperative Banks
    (D) Primary Agricultural Credit Societies
    (E) Regional Rural Banks and Local Area Banks

    ANSWERS

    1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (E) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (E) 7. (E) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (D)
    11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (A) 15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (E) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (E)
    21. (E) 22. (D) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (D) 26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (A) 30. (B)
    31. (E) 32. (B) 33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (E) 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (B)
    41. (C) 42. (D) 43. (C) 44. (E) 45. (B) 46. (A) 47. (B) 48. (A) 49. (D) 50. (E)

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