I.D.B.I. Assistant Manager Exam., 2010
General and Financial Awareness
(Exam Held on 14-11-2010)
1. The present Cash Reserve Ratio is—
(A) 5%
(B) 5•5%
(C) 6%
(D) 6•5%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
2. One of the objectives of KYC (Know Your Customer) norms is—
(A) to give boost to bank deposits
(B) to safeguard banks advances
(C) to monitor transactions of suspicious nature
(D) to help income tax authorities to collect income tax
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
3. Contribution to Prime Minister's relief fund enjoys Income Tax benefit up to—
(A) 50% under section 80G
(B) 75% under section 80G
(C) 100% under section 80 G
(D) 100% under section 88
(E) No exemption is available
Ans : (C)
4. Which of the following activities are expected to be performed by the Business correspondents ?
(A) Disbursal of small value credit
(B) Collection of small value deposits
(C) Sale of micro insurance /mutual fund products
(D) All the three above
(E) Only (B) and (C) above
Ans : (E)
5. Tax at source by banks is deducted on interest paid on term deposits in the interest amount in a financial year exceeds—
(A) Rs. 3,000
(B) Rs. 5,000
(C) Rs. 10,000
(D) Rs. 15,000
(E) There is no such provision
Ans : (B)
6. Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of security Interest Act relates to—
(A) Sanction of loans
(B) Enhancement of loan limits
(C) Recovery of loans
(D) All the above
(E) None of above
Ans : (C)
7. MSMED Act is applicable to—
(A) Smalls enterprises only
(B) Medium enterprises only
(C) Micro enterprises only
(D) Micro, Small and Medium enterprises
(E) All enterprises irrespective of their size engaged in manufacturing activity
Ans : (D)
8. Money Laundering refers to—
(A) Conversion of assets into cash
(B) Conversion of Money which is illegally obtained
(C) Conversion of cash into gold
(D) Conversion of gold into cash
(E) None of the above
Ans : (B)
9. The Monetary and Credit Policy is reviewed by the RBI after a gap of—
(A) one year
(B) one month
(C) two years
(D) five years
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
10. PPF account is opened for a period of—
(A) 5 years
(B) 10 years
(C) 15 years
(D) 20 years
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
11. Yuan is the currency of—
(A) Japan
(B) China
(C) Indonesia
(D) Myanmar
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
12. National savings certificate matures at the end of—
(A) Six years
(B) Three years
(C) Six and half years
(D) Five years
(E) Five and half years
Ans : (A)
13. Normally Bank accept Fixed Deposits for a maximum period of—
(A) 5 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 10 years
(D) 20 years
(E) Any number of years
Ans : (E)
14. Code of banks commitment to Micro and Small enterprises is prepared by—
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) FEDAI
(D) BCSBI
(E) Ministry of Small and Medium Enterprises
Ans : (E)
15. Which one of the following is not a salient feature of debit card ?
(A) No bad debts to banks and no suits for recovery
(B) No interest earning for banks
(C) Works like a normal withdrawal
(D) All the above
(E) 45 dayes credit is given to the card holder
Ans : (E)
16. IFRS stands for—
(A) International Financial Reporting standards
(B) Indian Financial Rating Standards
(C) International Financial Rating Standards
(D) All the three above
(E) None of the above
Ans : (A)
17. What is the present Repo Rate ?
(A) 5%
(B) 5•5%
(C) 6%
(D) 6•5%
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
18. There are certain financial instruments whose prices are derived from the price of the underlying currency of interest rate or stocks etc. These are known as—
(A) Derivatives
(B) Securitisation
(C) Leasing
(D) Factoring
(E) Venture Capital Funding
Ans : (A)
19. What is the full form of ASBA ?
(A) Allotment supported by Blocked Amount
(B) Application supported by Blocked Amount
(C) Application supported by Bank Amount
(D) Allotment supported by Bank Account
(E) None of the above
Ans : (B)
20. Reverse Repo is used by RBI to—
(A) Inject liquidity
(B) Absorb liquidity
(C) Increase the liquidity with banking system
(D) Keep the liquidity at one level
(E) None of the above
Ans : (D)
21. Which of the following is not considered as lending under infrastructure sector ?
(A) A Highway project
(B) Construction of Educational Institution
(C) Construction of Hospital
(D) Laying down of petroleum pipelines
(E) None of the above
Ans : (E)
22. KYC guidelines have been framed on the recommendations/as per guidelines of—
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Ministry of Finance
(C) Indian Banks Association
(D) Financial Action Task Force
(E) Ministry of Home affairs
Ans : (A)
23. The term ‘Power of Attorney’ refers to—
(A) Power of a person
(B) An authority to operate a Bank account
(C) An instrument by which a person is empowered to act for another person
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above
Ans : (C)
24. What is the amount of compensation to be paid per day, as per RBI directives in case of failed ATM transactions ?
(A) Rs. 50
(B) Rs. 100
(C) Rs. 200
(D) Rs. 500
(E) It is at the discretion of each Bank
Ans : (B)
25. Financial Action Task Force has an office in India at which place ?
(A) Mumbai
(B) Chennai
(C) Kolkata
(D) New Delhi
(E) All the above places
Ans : (D)
26. Bridge loans refer to—
(A) Loans granted to contruction companies for construction of bridges
(B) Loan granted to PWD for construction of bridges over Rivers
(C) Interim finance allowed by banks to their customers pending disbursement of term loans by financial institutions
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above
Ans : (C)
27. Payment of Demand Draft can be stopped by—
(A) Payee
(B) Holder
(C) Purchaser
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
28. Can any one file an appeal against the order passed by the Banking Ombudsman ? If so who is the Appellate Authority ?
(A) The Chairman of concerned Bank
(B) The Deputy Governor RBI
(C) Governor of RBI
(D) Finance Minister
(E) None of the above
Ans : (B)
29. For which one of the following reasons, the Government has approved a plan to infuse Rs. 15,000 crore capital into PSBs ?
(A) To boost their lending capacity
(B) To maintain minimum CRAR as per Basel II norms
(C) To maintain NPA provision coverage ratio
(D) To strengthen the Balance Sheet of banks
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
30. What is monetary policy transmission ?
(A) It refers to monetary policy of Central Bank
(B) It refers to fiscal policy of Government
(C) It refers to various channels through which the monetary policy of a Central Bank alters prices or output in the real economy
(D) It refers to various channels through which the fiscal policy of the Government alters prices or output in the real economy
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
31. On which one of the following issue IMF has supported monetary policy of India ?
(A) Tightening of monetary policy
(B) Stimulus for agriculture sector
(C) Concessions for foreign investment
(D) Introduction of GST
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
32. The advantage of convenience in credit card operations is for—
(A) Customer
(B) Members Establishments
(C) Banks
(D) All the above
(E) None of the above
Ans : (D)
33. Under provisions of which one of the following Acts, CAs/CS have been told to report all suspicious fund trasnfers ?
(A) RBI Act
(B) Banking Regulation Act
(C) Indian Companies Act
(D) Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
34. Bancassurance is—
(A) an insurance scheme to insure bank deposits
(B) an insurance scheme exclusively for the employees of banks
(C) a composite financial service offering both bank and insurance product
(D) a bank deposits scheme exclusively for employees of insurance companies
(E) None of the above
Ans : (C)
35. In the term STRIPS, the first letter ‘S’ denotes—
(A) Separate
(B) Small
(C) Special
(D) Savings
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
36. Which of the following organizations, provide credit history of the borrowers ?
(A) CIBIL
(B) SEBI
(C) RBI
(D) CRISIL
(E) IBA
Ans : (A)
37. Loans/advances to farmers is treated as—
(A) Personal Loans
(B) Priority Sector Loan
(C) Business Loan
(D) Corporate Loan
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
38. Which one of the following Organisations maintains CRR ?
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) NABARD
(D) IBA
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
39. When the loan is granted for purchase of white goods it is called—
(A) Consumption loan
(B) White goods loan
(C) Consumer durable loan
(D) All the above
(E) None of the above
Ans : (C)
40. Which one of the following is the objective of Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act ?
(A) To provide 100 days employment to people in rural areas
(B) To provide employment to educated youth
(C) To provide employment under KVIC schemes
(D) To create more valuable rural assets
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
41. Structure of Basel II is based on how many pillars ?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Eight
(E) Six
Ans : (B)
42. With which one of the following ‘Channel Financing’ is associated ?
(A) Retail Lending
(B) Corporate Lending
(C) SME Lending
(D) Supply Chain Finance
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
43. Expand the term FRBM—
(A) Financial Responsibility and Business Management
(B) Fiscal Responsibility and Business Management
(C) Financial Responsibility and Budget Management
(D) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
44. A customer can approach Banking ombudsman if he does not get satisfactory response to his grievance from the bank within how many days ?
(A) 10 days
(B) 20 days
(C) 8 days
(D) 30 days
(E) 60 days
Ans : (D)
45. Which one of the following country is in talks with EU and International Monetary Fund, to exit from debt crisis ?
(A) Spain
(B) Turkey
(C) Portugal
(D) Greece
(E) Finland
Ans : (D)
46. For achieving 8•5 percent GDP growth in fiscal 2010-11, which one of the following should be percent growth in farm sector ?
(A) 2•0
(B) 2•5
(C) 3•0
(D) 4•0
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
47. According to a report submitted by IMF in its World Economic Outlook, which one of the following countries will have highest percent GDP growth rate in 2011 ?
(A) China
(B) India
(C) Brazil
(D) Russia
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
48. Which one of the following has given ‘Aadhaar’ as its new brand name ?
(A) UIDAI
(B) Sports Ministry, GOI
(C) Ministry of Tourism, GOI
(D) NHAI
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
49. Which of the following will help poor to come out of their poverty ?
1. Good Health Service
2. Freedom from illiteracy
3. Optimum Sex Ratio
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) Only 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)
50. Which one of the following is per cent Bank Rate ?
(A) 4•0
(B) 4•5
(C) 5
(D) 3•33
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
IDBI PREVIOUS SOLVED PAPER
Quantitative aptitude
Qno.1-4. In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
1. 14 13 22 55 212 1035
(1) 55 (2) 13 (3) 212 (4) 22 (5) None of these
2. 217 224 213 226 210 228
(1) 213 (2) 226 (3) 210 (4) 228 (5) None of these
3. 153 495 712 837 901 928
(1) 712 (2) 837 (3) 901 (4) 928 (5) None of these
4. 488 245 124 64 35 20.25
(1) 124 (2) 64 (3) 245 (4) 35 (5) None of these
5. A 250 metres long train crosses a platform in 10 seconds. What is the speed of the train?
(1) 25 metres/second
(2) 20 metres/second
(3) 22 metres/second
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
6. The compound interest earned on an amount of Rs 15,000 at the end of 3 years is Rs 3895.68. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a.?
(1) 8 (2) 6.5 (3) 5 (4) 12 (5) None of these
7. 16 men can complete a piece of work in 8 days. 20 women take 16 days to complete the same piece of work. 12 men and 10 women work together for 6 days. How many
more days would 10 women alone require to complete the remaining piece of work?
(1) 8 (2) 10 (3) 4 (4) 16 (5) None of these
8. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘FORMULATE’ be arranged?
(1) 81,000 (2) 40,320 (3) 3,62,880 (4) 1,53,420 (5) None of these
9. The frogs in a pond increase by 10% at the end of every year. If at the start of the year 2004, there were 2,14,000 frogs in the pond, then what would be the number of frogs
in the pond by the end of the year 2006?
(1) 2,35,400 (2) 2,68,940 (3) 2,64,328 (4) 2,98,644 (5) None of these
Qno.10-14. In each of these questions, two equations are given. You have to solve these equations and find out the values of x and y and Give answer If
(1) x
(2) x>y
(3) x ≤y
(4) x ≥y
(5) x=y or if the relationship cannot be established
10. i. 12×2 = 6x
ii. y + x2 = 0.45
11. i. x 6.25
ii. y2 = 6.25
12. i. 20×2 – 33x + 7 = 0
ii. y 0.0625
13. i. 6×2 + 28x + 16 = 0
ii. 14y2 + 15y + 4 = 0
14. i. 4x + 3y = 16
ii. 2x + 4y = 13
15. On children’s day sweets were to be equally distributed amongst 540 children. But on that particular day, 120 children were absent. Thus, each child got 4 sweets extra. How many sweets was each child originally supposed to get?
(1) 18 (2) 25 (3) 14 (4) 20 (5) None of these
16. A boat covers a distance of 24 kms in 10 hours downstream. To cover the same distance upstream, the boat takes two hours longer. What is the speed of the boat in still
waters?
(1) 2 km/hr (2) 2.8 km/hr (3) 4 km/hr (4) 4.2 km/hr (5) None of these
17. The circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of a square whose area is 121 sq cms. What is the area of the circle?
(1) 44 sq cms (2) 154 sq cms (3) 121 sq cms (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
18. Sonia started a business by investing Rs 60,000. Six months later Vivek joined her by investing Rs 1,40,000. After one year Kirti joined them by investing Rs 1,20,000. At the
end of two years from the commencement of the business, 57 AUGUST 2006 THE COMPETITION MASTER O B J E C T I V E -T Y P E Q U E S T I O N S
they earn a profit of Rs 4,50,000. What is Vivek’s share in the profit?
(1) Rs 1,40,000 (2) Rs 1,98,500 (3) Rs 2,15,000 (4) Rs 2,10,000 (5) None of these
19. An urn contains 4 green and 7 blue marbles. If three marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that only two of them are blue?
(1)4955 (2)711 (3)2855 (4)1128 (5) None of these
Qno.20-24. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
20. 3 5 4 1 1 1 –2 ? 4 8 5 2
(1)7240 (2)7140 (3)3240 (4)3140 (5) None of these
21. 14 × 18.6 ÷ 12 + 19.3 = ?
(1) 41 (2) 33.5 (3) 291.9 (4) 8.32 (5) None of these
22. 84.2 × 642.1 × 78.4 × 563.5 = 56?
(1) 18.2 (2) 9.8 (3) 11.9 (4) 12.6 (5) None of these
23. (4)2 + (3)2 = ?
(1) 25 (2) 5 (3) 125 (4) 425 (5) None of these
24. 53% of 120 + 25% of 862 = ?% of 500
(1) 42.50 (2) 55.82 (3) 63.68 (4) 38.89 (5) None of these
Qno.25-29. Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer:
(1) if the data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement
II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(4) if the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
(5) if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
25. What is the area of the square?
I. Measure of the diagonal of the square is 80 cms.
II. The perimeter of the square is equal to the circumference of a circle.
26. What is Asha’s present salary?
I. Her salary increases every year by 15 per cent.
II. She joined the organization seven years ago.
27. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a.?
I. The compound interest acurred on an amount of Rs 1,500 at the end of 2 years is Rs 660.
II. An amount doubles itself in 5 years with simple interest.
28. What is the total staff strength of the organization?
I. 75% of the staff consists of male employees.
II. The ratio of female to male employees in the organization is 1 : 3 respectively.
29. What is the two digit number?
I. The sum of the two digits of the number is 8.
II. The number obtained by interchanging the two digits of the number is lesser than the original number by 18.
Answers:
1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (5) 4. (4) 5. (4) 6. (1) 7. (1) 8. (3) 9. (5) 10. (4)
11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (1) 14. (2) 15. (3) 16. (5) 17. (2) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (4)
21. (1) 22. (3) 23. (5) 24. (2) 25. (1) 26. (4) 27. (3) 28. (4) 29. (5)
I.D.B.I. Bank Officers Cadre Exam
Solved Question Paper of I.D.B.I. Bank Officers Cadre Exam Held on 3rd October 2008.
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SHOULDER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Brick
(B) Cement
(C) Sand
(D) Mortar
(E) Wall
3. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the first, the fifth, the seventh and the tenth letters of the word STREAMLINE, using each letter once in each word, which of the following is the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
(A) L
(B) E
(C) S
(D) X
(E) Y
4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Methane
(D) Neon
(E) Helium
5. In a certain code BREAKING is written as BFSCFMHJ. How is MOTHERLY written in that code ?
(A) IUPNZMSF
(B) IUPNXKQD
(C) IUPNFSMZ
(D) GSNLZMSF
(E) None of these
6. Among P, Q, R, S and T each having a different height, Q is taller than S. T is shorter than P. R is taller than Q but shorter than T. Who among them is the tallest ?
(A) S
(B) P
(C) R
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
7. Mohan correctly remembers that his mother’s birthday is before 16th but after 13th August whereas his sister correctly remembers that their mother’s birthday is after 14th but before 18th August. On which day in August was their mother’s birthday definitely ?
(A) 15th
(B) 14th
(C) 14th or 15th
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
8. In a certain code BEND is written as ‘5%3#’ and NIGHT is written as ‘3@©64’. How is DEBT written in that code ?
(A) #%©4
(B) #@54
(C) #%34
(D) #%54
(E) None of these
9. How many such digits are there in the number 5834619 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are arranged in descending order within the number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
10. If the positions of the first and the fifth digits in the number 85231467 are interchanged, similarly the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on, which of the following will be the second digit from the right end after the rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) 1
(E) None of these
Answers of (1-10 Questions):
1. (C) 2. (E) 3. (E) 4. (C) 5. (B),6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (A)
Directions—(Q. 11–16) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
11. Statements :
All drums are tubes.
Some tubes are pipes.
No pipe is stick.
Some sticks are rubbers.
Conclusions :
I. Some rubbers are tubes.
II. Some sticks are drums.
III. Some pipes are drums.
IV. Some sticks are tubes.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only I and II follow
(D) Only I and III follow
(E) Only III follows
12. Statements :
Some pens are rooms.
All rooms are walls.
Some walls are bricks.
All bricks are slates.
Conclusions :
I. Some slates are walls.
II. Some walls are pens.
III. Some bricks are rooms
IV. Some slates are rooms.
(A) Only I and III follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and II follow
(D) Only III and IV follow
(E) None of these
13. Statements :
Some chairs are pencils.
Some pencils are bottles.
Some bottles are bags.
Some bags are books.
Conclusions :
I. Some books are pencils.
II. Some bottles are chairs.
III. No book is pencil.
IV. Some bags are chairs.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only either I or III follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only IV follows
(E) None of these
14. Statements :
Some roads are buses.
All buses are trains.
Some trains are trucks.
All trucks are kites.
Conclusions :
I. Some trucks are roads.
II. Some kites are buses.
III. Some trains are roads.
IV. Some kites are trains.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) None of these
15. Statements :
All beads are rings.
All rings are bangles.
All bangles are tyres.
All tyres are pendants.
Conclusions :
I. Some pendants are beads.
II. Some tyres are rings.
III. Some bangles are beads.
IV. Some pendants are rings.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I, II and III follow
(C) Only II, III and IV follow
(D) Only I, III and IV follow
(E) All follow
16. Statements :
Some desks are fruits.
All fruits are flowers.
No flower is branch.
Some branches are roots.
Conclusions :
I. Some roots are flowers.
II. No desk is branch.
III. Some flowers are desks.
IV. Some branches are desks.
(A) Only either II or IV follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only either II or IV and III follow
(D) Only III and IV follow
(E) None of these
Answers from 11 to 16 are as follows:
11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (E) 15. (E),16. (C)
Directions—(Q. 17–22) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below—
R 4 P I J M Q 3 % T @ © U K 5 V 1 W $ Y 2 B E 6 # 9 D H 8 G * Z N
17. Which of the following is the sixth to the left of the fifteenth from the left end of the above arrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) #
(C) %
(D) $
(E) None of these
18. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and not immediately followed by a letter ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
19. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a letter but not immediately preceded by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
20. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a symbol ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
21. What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
P J Q T © K 1 $ 2 ?
(A) E # D
(B) 6 9 D
(C) 6 9 8
(D) 6 # D
(E) None of these
22. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) W Y 1
(B) Q % M
(C) © K @
(D) 9 H 6
(E) G Z 8
Answers from 17 to 22:
17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (D) 20. (A),21. (E) 22. (D)
Directions—(Q. 23–28) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven members of a club. Each of them has a favourite sport from-Chess, Table Tennis, Lawn Tennis, Volleyball, Badminton, Basketball and Carrom, not necessarily in the same order.
Each of them also has a specific choice of colour from—Blue, Red, Green, Yellow, Grey, Black and White, not necessarily in the same order.
R likes Green and his favourite sport is Badminton. V’s choice of colour is neither Red nor Black. T’s favourite sport is neither Table Tennis nor Basketball. The one who likes Blue does not like Carrom. The one who likes Volleyball does not like Yellow and Grey. Q’s favourite sport is Lawn Tennis and he likes Black. S likes White. W likes Basketball. P likes Volleyball. T likes Blue. The one who likes Basketball does not like Grey.
23. What is V’s choice of colour ?
(A) Black
(B) Grey
(C) Yellow
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
24. What is T’s favourite sport ?
(A) Basketball
(B) Volleyball
(C) Chess
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
25. Whose favourite sport is Carrom?
(A) S
(B) R
(C) W
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
26. Whose favourite sport is basketball ?
(A) S
(B) T
(C) W
(D) R
(E) Data inadequate
27. What is W’s choice of colour ?
(A) Green
(B) White
(C) Black
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
28. Which of the following combinations of sport and colour is correct ?
(A) Table Tennis, Yellow
(B) Volleyball, Red
(C) Volleyball, Grey
(D) Chess, Black
(E) Carrom, Green
Answers from 23 to 28 are as follows:
23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (D),26. (C) 27. (E) 28. (B)
Directions—(Q. 29–34) In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, give answer (E) i.e. ‘None of these’.
Letter :
R K A D E M W T I V U B F H P
Digit/Symbol :
2 d 3 * 1 8 # 4 $ 5 © 9 6 @ 7
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, the codes for the first and the last letters are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, both are to be coded as ‘?’.
(iii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as the code for the last letter.
Now based on the above, find out the coded form of the letter groups given in each question.
29. AMPERI
(A) 38712$
(B) $87123
(C) 387123
(D) 37812$
(E) None of these
30. RTVUBH
(A) 245©9@
(B) @45©92
(C) @45©9@
(D) ?45©9?
(E) None of these
31. BEFKMA
(A) 916d83
(B) ?16d8?
(C) 316d89
(D) 316d83
(E) None of these
32. EWPKIH
(A) 1#7d$@
(B) ?#7d$?
(C) 17#d$@
(D) @#7d$1
(E) None of these
33. RTDAVB
(A) 94*352
(B) 24*352
(C) ?4*35?
(D) 24*359
(E) None of these
34. HEUPKI
(A) @1©7d$
(B) $1©7d$
(C) @1©7d@
(D) ?1©7d?
(E) None of these
Answers from 29 to 34 are as follows
29. (A) 30. (C),31. (B) 32. (D) 33. (E) 34. (D) .
Directions—(Q. 35–40) In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, %, d and # are used with the following meaning as illustrated below :
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P d Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true ? Give answer—
(A) If only Conclusion I is true
(B) If only Conclusion II is true
(C) If either Conclusion I or II is true
(D) If neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
(E) If both Conclusions I and II are true
35. Statements :
R © T, T @ M, M d D
Conclusions : I. D # T
II. M # T
36. Statements :
B @ N, N % R, R © F
Conclusions : I. B @ F
II. N # F
37. Statements :
D # T, T @ R, R © M
Conclusions : I. M # D
II. M # T
38. Statements :
K d H, H % F, F # J
Conclusions : I. F © K
II. J © H
39. Statements :
W @ G, N © G, N % V
Conclusions : I. W @ N
II. V © G
40. Statements :
T © Y, Y % M, M @ R
Conclusions : I. R # Y
II. T d M
Answers from 35 to 40 are as follows
35. (E),36. (D) 37. (B) 38. (A) 39. (B) 40. (D)
Directions—(Q. 41–45) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions—
a, b, c, d, e and f are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. f is third to the right of b who is second to the right of e. c is third to the left of e. a is not an immediate neighbour of f.
41. Who is to the immediate right of f ?
(A) c
(B) d
(C) e
(D) b
(E) None of these
42. Who is to the immediate left of c ?
(A) b
(B) f
(C) b or f
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
43. Who is second to the right of c ?
(A) a
(B) e
(C) d
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
44. Who is to the immediate right of a ?
(A) e
(B) d
(C) c
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
45. Who are the immediate neighbours of e ?
(A) ab
(B) df
(C) bd
(D) af
(E) None of these
Answers from 41 to 45 are as folows
41. (C) 42. (A) 43. (E) 44. (E) 45. (D)
Directions—(Q. 46–50) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer—
(A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(D) If the data given in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the question, and
(E) If the data in both the statements I & II together are necessary to answer the question.
46. How many daughters does M have ?
I. N and P are sisters of K.
II. M is father of K.
47. On which day of the week did Mohan visit temple ?
I. Mohan visited the temple one day after his sister’s visit to temple.
II. Mohan’s sister visited the temple before Sunday.
48. What does ‘ja’ mean in a code language ?
I. ‘ja pa na’ means ‘go home now’ in that code language.
II. ‘na da ta’ means ‘come back home’ in that code language.
49. Among M, N, T, P and R each having different weight, who is the heaviest ?
I. T is heavier than P and M but lighter than N who is not the heaviest.
II. M is lighter than P.
50. How is D related to T ?
I. D’s brother is father of T’s sister.
II. T’s brother is son of D’s brother.
Answers from 46 to 50
46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (D) 49. (A) 50. (D).
IDBI Bank Executive Exam., 2009
IDBI Bank Executive Exam., 2009
Reasoning : Solved Paper
(Held on 13-12-2009)
1. If ‘M’ denotes ‘+’, ‘N’ denotes ‘÷’, ‘R’ denotes ‘–’ and Q denotes ‘x’ then—
15 M 12 Q 5 R 40 N 8 = ?
(A) 70
(B) 130
(C) 45
(D) 60
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
2. How many meaningful English words can be formed using the third, fifth, ninth and eleventh letters of the word ‘COMMANDMENT’ using each letter only once ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)
3. Seema correctly remembers that she took leave after 21st October and before 27th October. Her colleague Rita took leave on 23rd October but Seema was present on that day. If 24th October was a public holiday and 26th October was Sunday, on which day in October did Seema take leave ?
(A) 22nd October
(B) 25th October
(C) 22nd or 25th October
(D) Data Inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 4 and 5) The following questions are based on the five three letter words given below—
PUN SAD CRY FOE STY
If each of the words is rearranged in alphabetical order then—
4. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word using each letter only once, from the first letters of each of the five words after the letters of each word are rearranged in alphabetical order, the last letter of that word is your answer. If more than one word can be formed, ‘X’ is the answer and if no such word can be formed then ‘W’ is the answer.
(A) E
(B) N
(C) X
(D) W
(E) S
Ans : (C)
5. How many words will remain unchanged even after their rearrangement in alphabetical order ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)
6. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘VERIFIED’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)
7. The fare paying capacity of people who travel on routes connecting to small towns is very low. Most successful airlines which operate in such regions have a large number of seats.
Which of the following can be inferred from the above information ?
(A) Regional airlines are quite profitable.
(B) People from cities are increasingly travelling to small towns.
(C) Regional airlines have to charge low fares in order to be profitable.
(D) The number of people travelling from small towns to cities is massive.
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
8. If ‘A ×D’ means ‘A is the sister of D’, ‘A + D’ means ‘D is the daughter of A’ and ‘A ÷ D’ means ‘A is the mother of D’, then how will N is the aunt of M be denoted ?
(A) M + L ×N
(B) M ÷ L + N
(C) L ×N ÷ M
(D) N ×L ÷ M
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
9. M earns more than X and less than T. V earns more than M and T. R earns more than only X. Who earns the least among the five of them ?
(A) X
(B) V
(C) M
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
10. The Court has stayed proceedings against the stockbroker. He can now return to the country. Which of the following can be assumed from the given information ?
(A) The stockbroker is innocent.
(B) The police cannot arrest the stockbroker.
(C) The judge has been bribed.
(D) Complaints filed against the stockbroker have been withdrawn.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 11–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. A sits third to the left of C and second to the right of E. B sits second to the right of D who is not an immediate neighbour of E. H sits second to the left of F. G is not an immediate neighbour of D.
11. Which of the following pairs has only one person sitting-between them, if the counting is done in clockwise direction ?
(A) F, G
(B) H, G
(C) H, C
(D) H, B
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
12. Who sits third to the right of E ?
(A) D
(B) G
(C) F
(D) B
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
13. What is the position of G with respect to A’s position ?
(A) Immediately to the right
(B) Second to the left
(C) Third to the right
(D) Third to the left
(E) Fourth to the right
Ans : (D)
14. Who sits between E and A ?
(A) F
(B) D
(C) G
(D) B
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
15. Starting from A’s position, if all the eight are arranged in alphabetical order in clockwise direction, the seating position of how many members (excluding A) would remain unchanged ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 16–23) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
16. Statements :
Some stoves are ovens.
All ovens are cylinders.
Some engines are stoves.
Some metals are cylinders.
Conclusions :
I. Some ovens are metals
II. Some cylinders are stoves
III. Some ovens are engines
IV. No engine is a cylinder
(A) None follows
(B) Only II and IV follow
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only II follows
Ans : (E)
17. Statements :
Some cars are buses.
Some buses are trains.
All airplanes are trains.
All trucks are buses.
Conclusions :I. Some airplanes are trucks.
II. Some cars are trains.
III. Some trucks are airplanes.
IV. No truck is train.
(A) None follows
(B) Only II and IV follow
(C) Only III and IV follow
(D) Only I and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
18. Statements :
Some tools are hammers.
All tools are trees.
Some trees are flowers.
No hammer is flower.
Conclusions :I. All hammers are tools.
II. No tool is flower.
III. Some hammers are trees.
IV. Some flowers are tools.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I and either II or IV follow
(C) Only II and IV follow
(D) Only III follows
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
19. Statements :
Some bags are pockets.
Some pockets are trousers.
All skirts are pockets.
Some belts are bags.
Conclusions :I. Some trousers are belts.
II. Some skirts are bags.
III. No trouser is belt.
IV. Some skirts are trousers.
(A) All follow
(B) Only II and IV follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only either I or III follows
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
20. Statements :Some cats are tigers.
All lions are cats.
Some horses are lions.
All horses are animals.
Conclusions :I. Some lions are tigers.
II. No horse is tiger.
III. Some horses are cats.
IV. Some horses are tigers.
(A) None follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only II and IV follow
(D) Only III and either II or IV follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
21. Statements :
Some clocks are radios.
No radio is laptop.
Some fridges are clocks.
Some clocks are laptops.
Conclusions :I. Some fridges are laptops.
II. No radio is fridge.
III. Laptops are either fridges or clocks.
IV. No laptop is fridge.
(A) Only II follows
(B) Only IV follows
(C) Only either I or IV follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
22. Statements :Some notes are coins.
Some papers are plastics.
All coins are papers.
No note is cardboard.
Conclusions :I. Some notes are papers.
II. Some coins are plastics.
III. No paper is cardboard.
IV. No note is plastic.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only I and II follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
23. Statements :All stools are desks.
No desk is shelf.
All shelves are cupboards.
Some cupboards are mirrors.
Conclusions :
I. No mirror is shelf.
II. No stool is shelf.
III. No cupboard is desk.
IV. No mirror is desk.
(A) None follows
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only II, III and IV follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 24–28) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below—
M ? 2 D B 7 A 4 * 9 6 $ T + N 5 @ V E W # U 8 F © 3
24. How many such prime numbers are there in the given arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a symbol and preceded by a consonant ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (B)
25. If the places of the symbols are interchanged with those of the numbers immediately following them in the given arrangement then which of the following will be the eleventh from the right end ?
(A) V
(B) @
(C) 5
(D) N
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
26. Which of the following is the seventh letter to the left of # ?
(A) A
(B) N
(C) T
(D) B
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
27. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
2 7 B 4 6 9 T 5 N ?
(A) @ W E
(B) 5 E V
(C) V U #
(D) V # W
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
28. If the symbols and numbers are dropped from the given arrangement and then the letters are rearranged in alphabetical order which of the following will be the sixth from the left end ?
(A) M
(B) F
(C) N
(D) E
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 29–33) Below in each question are given two statements (I) and (II). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and then decide which of the
following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answer—
(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
(C) if both statements I and II are independent causes.
(D) if both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(E) if both statements I and II are effects of some common causes.
29. I. There has been mass recruitment of IT professionals by Indian IT companies
II. Many developed countries are increasingly outsourcing IT related functions to India and China.
Ans : (B)
30. I. Many farmers have given up jute cultivation as it is no longer economically viable.
II. The textile ministry has proposed a hike in the Minimum Support Price of jute.
Ans : (A)
31. I. The government is considering changes in the Land Acquisition Act.
II. Several large infrastructure development projects have been stalled due to unavailability of land.
Ans : (E)
32. I. The Government is considering the possibility of involving private sector companies in highway construction projects.
II. The implementation of many highway projects undertaken by government agencies is behind schedule in various states.
Ans : (B)
33. I. The price of aircraft fuel has risen during the past few months.
II. Many passenger airlines in India have been forced to cut their air fares by about 10 per cent.
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 34–40) In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the coding system and mark the letter of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (E) i.e., ‘None of these’ as your answer.
Letter :W R A P G B M U S E F T N D
Digit/Symbol Codes :$ 8 ! 2 7 # 9 @ ? 5 b 4 * 6
Conditions :
I. If the middle letter is a vowel, the codes for the first and the fourth letters are to be interchanged.
II. If the first two letters are consonants, the first letter is to be coded, no code may be given to the second letter and the remaining three letters are to be coded.
III. If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant both are to be coded as the code for the consonant.
34. NEAST—
(A) ?5!*4
(B) ?5!4*
(C) 4*!5?
(D) 45!?
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
35. DAEWP—
(A) 6!5$2
(B) $!562
(C) 6!52$
(D) $265!
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
36. PEFTG—
(A) 25b42
(B) 2b4G
(C) 25b47
(D) 47b25
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
37. SMGBE—
(A) ?975#
(B) 97#5?
(C) ?97#5
(D) ?#79?
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
38. UGREN—
(A) *785@
(B) *785*
(C) @785@
(D) @85*
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
39. RBMFN—
(A) 8#9b4
(B) b*98#
(C) 89b*
(D) 8#9b*
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
40. MUTWA—
(A) 9@$4!
(B) 94$!
(C) 94@!$
(D) 9@4$!
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Directions-(Q. 41-50) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow—
A bank is disbursing educational loans to meritorious students. Loans will be made available to applicants who possess the following criteria.
The candidate must—
I. Be a citizen of India
II. Have secured admission to a post graduate course (Masters or P. G. Diploma) offered by an Indian or foreign university in India.
III. Have secured 60 per cent marks in the entrance examination for the course.
IV. Have security (property/LIC policy) equivalent to the loan amount.
However if the applicant fulfils the above mentioned criteria except—
(1) At (II) above the case may be referred to the Loan committee.
(2) At (IV) above guarantee of a third party who has an account with the bank may be obtained.
Mark answer :
(A) If the loan is to be sanctioned.
(B) If the loan is to be rejected.
(C) If the loan is to be referred to the loan committee.
(D) If guarantee from an account holder is needed.
(E) If the data provided is inadequate to take a decision.
41. Shruti has secured admission to MNV University in Chennai for a post-graduate degree in management. She obtained 65 per cent in the entrance test for the course. She has an Indian passport.
Ans : (E)
42. Milind has applied and secured admission for a post-graduate degree in advertising at MIC University Ahmedabad. He has an LIC policy equivalent to the loan amount. He secured 70 per cent in his graduation and is an Indian citizen.
Ans : (A)
43. Prakash has applied for a postgraduate course in IT and Animation which will commence from January in Kolkata. He has secured admission to the course having obtained 60 per cent in the written entrance test.
His uncle who has an account with the bank is willing to stand guarantor.
Ans : (E)
44. Anil is an Indian science graduate who has secured admission for a Masters degree in Computer Science from a prestigious Indian University. He stood first in the entrance test with 82 per cent marks. His family is willing to use their house, which is equivalent in value to the loan amount, as security. He will stay with his uncle in Dubai during the course.
Ans : (A)
45. Nikhil’s part time P.G. Diploma in Management will begin in December. He secured 65 per cent in the All India entrance exam and has secured admission to a college in Mumbai. He has requested a transfer for the
duration of the course. He has an LIC policy equivalent to the loan amount. Nikhil holds an Indian passport.
Ans : (A)
46. Maria secured 75% in the entrance exam to NVT College Pune and has obtained admission. An Indian national she has the necessary property to offer as security for the loan amount. The duration of her undergraduate degree course in Computer Applications is 3 years.
Ans : (E)
47. Deepa obtained 70 per cent in her engineering entrance exam for her Masters and has secured admission to the college of her choice. She has an LIC policy equivalent in value to the loan amount. Her interview to obtain a visa for her course in the U.S. is on November 25. She is an Indian citizen.
Ans : (A)
48. Sudhir has applied for a postgraduate degree in Pharmacy at All India Institute at New Delhi. He is an Indian citizen and having secured 60 per cent in his entrance exam, he has been granted admission. He does not have any property to use as security. His father who has an account with the bank is willing to guarantee the loan.
Ans : (D)
49. Anandi has secured admission for a P.G. Diploma in Management at a University in Allahabad with 72 per cent in the entrance examination. She has an LIC Policy amounting to the loan amount. She is an Indian citizen.
Ans : (A)
50. Ravi has obtained admission to the Indian Institute of Research at Chandigarh for a Masters in Mathematics offered only to Indian citizens. He secured 68 per cent in the entrance test. He does not have any security against the loan. However his employer who has an account with the bank is willing to guarantee the loan.
Ans : (D)
I.D.B.I Bank Exam Paper 2009
I.D.B.I Bank Exam Paper 2009
Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
As the price of gasoline spiked to record highs in 2007 and 2008, interest in alternatives to fossil fuels, and electric transportation in particular, also spiked. It raised, however, many questions about the true environmental impact of electric cars.
The electrtic car is being upheld as an ethical, green, nifty and cheap alternative to the carbon dioxideemitting automobiles clogging city roads around the world today. Though electric cars are not a popular choice, the industry’s future plans are riding high on the hope that on improving certain factors, (which are currently deficient) such as, effective marketing, a growing public awareness of the need for clean air and the increase in demand, the prices would eventually be driven down.
However, battery powered vehicles may still fail to completely replace liquid fuel-fed ones but with more electric and hybrid vehicles on the road, there is greater scope for a makeover in the way environment is impacted by the automobiles. However, if the power to charge the battery-operated vehicle is to be sourced from grids using conventional coal-fired power plants, the electric car wouldn’t really be all that green. These would actually cause an increase in demand on the power plant’s energy production causing them to produce more power and thus more pollution, unless greener ways of energy production are used. But as of now the bulk of the electricity used to charge the batteries of electric vehicles is generated by fossil fuel burning power stations and only 12% by the clean methods. Also, the amount of energy used by coal fired power stations to create the electricity to recharge electric vehicles make them half as efficient as diesel cars. Recent studies indicate that carbon emissions may reduce only by an insignificant level even if there is a sudden surge in demand for electric cars.
Other factors making the rechargeable cars less efficient include the amount of electricity lost in the journey between the coal fired power stations which generate it and the point where it recharges the car, and the energy lost by the faulty firstgeneration batteries and motors. The researchers calculated that of the energy burned in a power station, only a quarter reaches an electric car after leakages and losses along the supply chain, giving the vehicle an energy efficiency score of 24%. This amounts to more than 75% energy loss much before the car is even put on ignition. A modern diesel engine, by contrast, achieves 45% efficiency. This suggests that if fossil fuels are to be burned, it is much more efficient to do it within the engine of a vehicle rather than at a power station and then try to send it via the National Grid, where a lot of energy is wasted, and finally to store it in a battery which in itself might leak power.
Electric cars may still survive since the car’s emissions would be far less polluting than those that run on fossil fuels. With very minor emissions of sulphur caused when the batteries charge and discharge, when compared to current emissions standards, electric cars are zero emissions. The gasoline engine by comparison does not fare as well. Gasoline and diesel fuel burned in internal combustion engines for transportation account for 54 per cent of nitrites of oxygen, 89 per cent of carbon monoxide and 28 per cent of carbon dioxide pollution produced. Switching to electric vehicles drops those percentages to zero, and only slightly increases sulphur emissions. So even when the power plants burn dirty fuel, the amount of pollution is less than an oil burning car would create. And this picture is improving all the time, as clean energy sources are added to the grid.
The goal should be to make more electric cars with greater incentive for consumers and producers, as well as feeding grids with more power from renewable resources–as per the objectives stated in the numerous plans on Climate Changes. And till this goal is achieved, the debate whether controlling emission at a few power plants is more convenient than controlling emission at millions of tailpipes is, would continue.
1. Why does the author fear that the electric cars may eventually not be very eco-friendly ?
(A) The exhausts of these cars emit as much pollutants as the oil fuelled cars
(B) Electric cars, though have lesser quantity of other emissions, the sulphur emissions will rise substantially, thus harming the environment
(C) The electricity for charging the batteries of these cars comes from power plants using pollution causing fossil fuels
(D) Only (A) and (C)
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
2. What, according to the author, needs to be done in order to make electric cars more ecofriendly ?
(A) Encouraging powerplants to generate electricity using the eco-friendly methods
(B) Setting certain emission standards for electric cars as is done for the oil consuming cars
(C) Controlling Sulphur emissions which are one of the major contributors to environmental pollution at present
(D) Making provisions for easy availability of recharging sockets at all the places
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
3. Which of the following suggestions does the author make in order to popularize the electric cars ?
(A) Discontinue the use of fuel powered cars completely
(B) Optimize the benefits of using electric cars to both consumers as well as the producers
(C) To supply grids with renewable sources of energy for the production of electricity
(D) Only (B) and (C)
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
4. Why, according to the author, are electric cars not a popular option among the people ?
(1) The recharging points are not easily available everywhere.
(2) Effective marketing of the eco-friendly cars has been lacking.
(3) Lack of appreciation among the people for the need of unpolluted air.
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) All (1), (2) and (3)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
5. Why, according to the author, may the electric cars survive despite all their current deficiencies ?
(1) Electric cars will be subsidised and thus would prove to be cost efficient to the buyers.
(2) An increasing number of grids are shifting to alternate forms of energy production.
(3) In the future, incentives would be provided to those driving electric cars.
(4) Pollution caused by the electric cars is far less as compared to the fossil fuel driven cars.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (3) and (4)
(C) Only (2) and (4)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
6. Which of the following can be the most appropriate title for the passage ?
(A) The failure of the power grids
(B) The rise and fall of cars using fossil fuels
(C) The adverse effects of pollution caused by the power grids
(D) The growing popularity of the electric cars
(E) Why eco-friendliness of electric cars is a fiction at present
Ans : (D)
7. Which of the following can be inferred from the given passage?
(A) Electric car may completely replace the fossil fuel powered cars one day
(B) Electric cars have brought about a drastic improvement in the pollution levels at present
(C) Electric cars have universally been accepted as the environment friendly cars
(D) All (A), (B) and (C) are true
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
8. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in context of the given passage ?
(A) Nearly three-fourth of the total energy generated for powering electric cars is wasted
(B) The interest in electric cars increased during the last year when most of the power grids shifted to clean sources of fuel
(C) Electric car engines do not produce by carbon emissions
(D) There would not be any noticeable improvement in the pollution level if the oil burning cars are shifted to electric cars at present
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
9. Why, according to the author, is the efficienty of the electric cars low even before they actually hit the roads ?
(1) Alot of energy is lost during the transit of electricity fromthe grid to the recharge point.
(2) The manufacturing cost of the electric cars is much higher than that of the other cars.
(3) The batteries and the motors of the electric cars are still relatively new and waste a lot of power.
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (2)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 10–12) Choose the word / group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
10. PICTURE
(A) Situation
(B) Photograph
(C) Representation
(D) Art work
(E) Idea
Ans : (A)
11. FEEDING
(A) Eating
(B) Supplying
(C) Consuming
(D) Encouraging
(E) Nourishing
Ans : (B)
12. SURGE
(A) Alteration
(B) Modification
(C) Intensification
(D) Increase
(E) Evolution
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 13–15) Choose the word/group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
13. SLIGHTLY
(A) Adequately
(B) Miserly
(C) Certainly
(D) Remotely
(E) Substantially
Ans : (E)
14. SWITCHING
(A) Prolonging
(B) Withdrawing
(C) Continuing
(D) Exchanging
(E) Alternating
Ans : (B)
15. INCENTIVES
(A) Deterrents
(B) Preventions
(C) Disadvantages
(D) Prohibitions
(E) Liability
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 16–25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence, the letter of that part will be the answer. If there is no error, mark (E) as the answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
16. Sheela had to travel all the way back (A) / when she remembered that (B) / she had forgot to take (C) / important documents with her. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
17. The party is holding a meeting (A) / in order to begin the (B) / painful and difficult process (C) / of rethink its political strategy. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
18. The only bad thing about (A) / these flowers are the (B) / pollen which causes (C) / allergy in many people. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
19. Nobody in the bus (A) / offered to give their seat (B) / to the elderly lady who had to (C) / travel a long distance. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
20. This is the only organization (A) / which could somehow continue (B) / to making profits (C) / in the face of recession. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
21. Many more would have died (A) / if they hadn’t received (B) / the timely helping from (C) / the relief team. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
22. A man along with (A) / his wife and two children (B) / were rescued with the help (C) / of an army helicopter. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
23. In the past two decades, (A) / preventive measures have (B) / drastically reduced the (C) / occurrence of polio in children. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
24. Neither the ministers (A) / nor the intelligence sources (B) / was aware of the coup (C) / being planned in the country. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
25. Certain amounts of stress (A) / at work is natural but (B) / it is important that one learns (C) / to keep it in the right proportion. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.
26. An NGO is working towards providing free education to the girl child so that every girl can stand on their own feet.
(A) stands on their own
(B) stand on her own
(C) stand in her own
(D) stand on their own’s
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)
27. The animal rescuers anesthetized the dog which had been with great pain after having met with an accident.
(A) which had been in
(B) which is being with
(C) who had been in
(D) who has been at
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)
28. In its final decision, the court ruled that all the allegations levelled for the accused were false and baseless.
(A) allegation levelled against the
(B) allegations level against that
(C) allegations levelled against the
(D) allegations levelled with that
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)
29. If I leave early from home, I could have made it on time to the airport.
(A) If I would leave early
(B) Had I leave earlier
(C) If I could left early
(D) had I left earlier
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)
30. Thousands of fire-fighters were deployed at the factory when a fire suddenly broke out due to a short circuit.
(A) on the factory when
(B) at the factory while
(C) at that factory when
(D) in the factory while
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 31–35) Rearrange the following sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 to make a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions which follow :
1. This decision on which force is to be maximized lies with every individual.
2. This belief comes from the fact that science reflects the social forces prevailing at a particular time.
3. We must maximize the constructive forces of science and the destructive ones should be minimized.
4. Contrary to popular belief, the greatest enemy of mankind is not science but war.
5. She/he must understand that science can only help us in providing ways to reach at either war or peace and is actually not responsible for causing these.
6. During peaceful times science is constructive and during war, science is perverted to destructive ends.
31. Which of the following sentence should be the SIXTH (LAST) after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)
32. Which of the following sentence should be the THIRD after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 3
Ans : (A)
33. Which of the following sentence should be the FIFTH after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)
34. Which of the following sentence should be the FIRST after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)
35. Which of the following sentence should be the SECOND after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 36–45) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.
Asteroids are rocks and debris which are the leftovers of the construction of our solar system. Most are in a belt, which …(36)… between Mars and Jupiter. However, the gravitational influence of the giant planets, like Jupiter, or an impact by a comet can knock these large rocks out of their orbit, thus hurling them …(37)… the Earth. Many bodies have struck Earth in the …(38)…, and a widely accepted theory blames the impact of an asteroid for the exinction of dinosaurs about 65 million years ago. The scale of such a disaster can be understood by the example of a relatively small-size asteroid strike in Siberia in early 20th century which …(39)… more than half a million acres of forest.
However, what relieves the common man of the …(40)… regarding asteroid impact is the fact that many scientific groups are dedicated towards tracking the asteroid paths and orbit all around the year. With advanced equipments and technology, they can predict any upcoming danger much in …(41)…. According to them the chances of finding such an asteroid crossing Earth in this or the next five generation’s lifetime is only one in thousands. Even if such an asteroid is found out, there will be …(42)… of time to track it, measure its orbit precisely, and plan a system for …(43)… it from its orbit away from that of the Earth’s. There will be no great hurry, and no great panic. It would be a project for all the world’s nations to take part in. It could be a globally unifying event. Because it will be …(44)… long before it actually hits the Earth. It probably would take only a small measure such as chemical rockets, or perhaps an atomic explosion to divert it from a threatening path.
Thus, in short, it can be said that though the impact would pose enormous risk to all living forms on Earth, the odds of it occurring within our lifetimes is very …(45)… and it is unnecessary to run around believing that the sky is falling.
36. (A) rotates
(B) appears
(C) strikes
(D) encircle
(E) exists
Ans : (A)
37. (A) past
(B) around
(C) towards
(D) against
(E) inside
Ans : (C)
38. (A) future
(B) centuries
(C) earliest
(D) past
(E) history
Ans : (D)
39. (A) extinct
(B) devastated
(C) wasted
(D) shrivelled
(E) fell
Ans : (B)
40. (A) apprehension
(B) expectation
(C) distrust
(D) sufferings
(E) hesitation
Ans : (A)
41. (A) sooner
(B) accuracy
(C) advance
(D) time
(E) distance
Ans : (C)
42. (A) dearth
(B) loss
(C) most
(D) lack
(E) plenty
Ans : (E)
43. (A) blocking
(B) deflecting
(C) avoiding
(D) destroying
(E) changing
Ans : (B)
44. (A) experienced
(B) harmful
(C) perceived
(D) noticed
(E) devastating
Ans : (C)
45. (A) low
(B) large
(C) narrow
(D) high
(E) few
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 46–50) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
46. After having been friends for more than a decade, they had a ……… last year and have not ……… each other ever since.
(A) fight, talked
(B) argument, met
(C) dispute, seen
(D) quarrel, admired
(E) difference, introduced
Ans : (C)
47. The workers, several of ………had complained about their low wages earlier have now ……… to move the court for the labour rights.
(A) who, indicated
(B) whom, decided
(C) which, threatened
(D) them, resolved
(E) number, warmed
Ans : (B)
48. The hutment dwellers were jubilant when the government ……… an apartment to each of them at ……… rates.
(A) demolished, fast
(B) announced, less
(C) provided, high
(D) acquired, low
(E) promised, subsidised
Ans : (E)
49. The organization was deeply …………by difficulties a decade ago but the new CEO brought many ……… changes in it and took it to a new high.
(A) indebted, necessary
(B) plagued, vital
(C) coping, more
(D) hurt, critical
(E) shaken, inevitable
Ans : (B)
50. The prime minister who is ……… in his holiday home at the moment said that he was very ……… by the news of India winning the world cup.
(A) visiting, happy
(B) residing, obliged
(C) intruding, dejected
(D) staying, pleased
(E) resting, cheerful
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
As the price of gasoline spiked to record highs in 2007 and 2008, interest in alternatives to fossil fuels, and electric transportation in particular, also spiked. It raised, however, many questions about the true environmental impact of electric cars.
The electrtic car is being upheld as an ethical, green, nifty and cheap alternative to the carbon dioxideemitting automobiles clogging city roads around the world today. Though electric cars are not a popular choice, the industry’s future plans are riding high on the hope that on improving certain factors, (which are currently deficient) such as, effective marketing, a growing public awareness of the need for clean air and the increase in demand, the prices would eventually be driven down.
However, battery powered vehicles may still fail to completely replace liquid fuel-fed ones but with more electric and hybrid vehicles on the road, there is greater scope for a makeover in the way environment is impacted by the automobiles. However, if the power to charge the battery-operated vehicle is to be sourced from grids using conventional coal-fired power plants, the electric car wouldn’t really be all that green. These would actually cause an increase in demand on the power plant’s energy production causing them to produce more power and thus more pollution, unless greener ways of energy production are used. But as of now the bulk of the electricity used to charge the batteries of electric vehicles is generated by fossil fuel burning power stations and only 12% by the clean methods. Also, the amount of energy used by coal fired power stations to create the electricity to recharge electric vehicles make them half as efficient as diesel cars. Recent studies indicate that carbon emissions may reduce only by an insignificant level even if there is a sudden surge in demand for electric cars.
Other factors making the rechargeable cars less efficient include the amount of electricity lost in the journey between the coal fired power stations which generate it and the point where it recharges the car, and the energy lost by the faulty firstgeneration batteries and motors. The researchers calculated that of the energy burned in a power station, only a quarter reaches an electric car after leakages and losses along the supply chain, giving the vehicle an energy efficiency score of 24%. This amounts to more than 75% energy loss much before the car is even put on ignition. A modern diesel engine, by contrast, achieves 45% efficiency. This suggests that if fossil fuels are to be burned, it is much more efficient to do it within the engine of a vehicle rather than at a power station and then try to send it via the National Grid, where a lot of energy is wasted, and finally to store it in a battery which in itself might leak power.
Electric cars may still survive since the car’s emissions would be far less polluting than those that run on fossil fuels. With very minor emissions of sulphur caused when the batteries charge and discharge, when compared to current emissions standards, electric cars are zero emissions. The gasoline engine by comparison does not fare as well. Gasoline and diesel fuel burned in internal combustion engines for transportation account for 54 per cent of nitrites of oxygen, 89 per cent of carbon monoxide and 28 per cent of carbon dioxide pollution produced. Switching to electric vehicles drops those percentages to zero, and only slightly increases sulphur emissions. So even when the power plants burn dirty fuel, the amount of pollution is less than an oil burning car would create. And this picture is improving all the time, as clean energy sources are added to the grid.
The goal should be to make more electric cars with greater incentive for consumers and producers, as well as feeding grids with more power from renewable resources–as per the objectives stated in the numerous plans on Climate Changes. And till this goal is achieved, the debate whether controlling emission at a few power plants is more convenient than controlling emission at millions of tailpipes is, would continue.
1. Why does the author fear that the electric cars may eventually not be very eco-friendly ?
(A) The exhausts of these cars emit as much pollutants as the oil fuelled cars
(B) Electric cars, though have lesser quantity of other emissions, the sulphur emissions will rise substantially, thus harming the environment
(C) The electricity for charging the batteries of these cars comes from power plants using pollution causing fossil fuels
(D) Only (A) and (C)
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
2. What, according to the author, needs to be done in order to make electric cars more ecofriendly ?
(A) Encouraging powerplants to generate electricity using the eco-friendly methods
(B) Setting certain emission standards for electric cars as is done for the oil consuming cars
(C) Controlling Sulphur emissions which are one of the major contributors to environmental pollution at present
(D) Making provisions for easy availability of recharging sockets at all the places
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
3. Which of the following suggestions does the author make in order to popularize the electric cars ?
(A) Discontinue the use of fuel powered cars completely
(B) Optimize the benefits of using electric cars to both consumers as well as the producers
(C) To supply grids with renewable sources of energy for the production of electricity
(D) Only (B) and (C)
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
4. Why, according to the author, are electric cars not a popular option among the people ?
(1) The recharging points are not easily available everywhere.
(2) Effective marketing of the eco-friendly cars has been lacking.
(3) Lack of appreciation among the people for the need of unpolluted air.
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) All (1), (2) and (3)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
5. Why, according to the author, may the electric cars survive despite all their current deficiencies ?
(1) Electric cars will be subsidised and thus would prove to be cost efficient to the buyers.
(2) An increasing number of grids are shifting to alternate forms of energy production.
(3) In the future, incentives would be provided to those driving electric cars.
(4) Pollution caused by the electric cars is far less as compared to the fossil fuel driven cars.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (3) and (4)
(C) Only (2) and (4)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
6. Which of the following can be the most appropriate title for the passage ?
(A) The failure of the power grids
(B) The rise and fall of cars using fossil fuels
(C) The adverse effects of pollution caused by the power grids
(D) The growing popularity of the electric cars
(E) Why eco-friendliness of electric cars is a fiction at present
Ans : (D)
7. Which of the following can be inferred from the given passage?
(A) Electric car may completely replace the fossil fuel powered cars one day
(B) Electric cars have brought about a drastic improvement in the pollution levels at present
(C) Electric cars have universally been accepted as the environment friendly cars
(D) All (A), (B) and (C) are true
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
8. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in context of the given passage ?
(A) Nearly three-fourth of the total energy generated for powering electric cars is wasted
(B) The interest in electric cars increased during the last year when most of the power grids shifted to clean sources of fuel
(C) Electric car engines do not produce by carbon emissions
(D) There would not be any noticeable improvement in the pollution level if the oil burning cars are shifted to electric cars at present
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
9. Why, according to the author, is the efficienty of the electric cars low even before they actually hit the roads ?
(1) Alot of energy is lost during the transit of electricity fromthe grid to the recharge point.
(2) The manufacturing cost of the electric cars is much higher than that of the other cars.
(3) The batteries and the motors of the electric cars are still relatively new and waste a lot of power.
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (2)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 10–12) Choose the word / group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
10. PICTURE
(A) Situation
(B) Photograph
(C) Representation
(D) Art work
(E) Idea
Ans : (A)
11. FEEDING
(A) Eating
(B) Supplying
(C) Consuming
(D) Encouraging
(E) Nourishing
Ans : (B)
12. SURGE
(A) Alteration
(B) Modification
(C) Intensification
(D) Increase
(E) Evolution
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 13–15) Choose the word/group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
13. SLIGHTLY
(A) Adequately
(B) Miserly
(C) Certainly
(D) Remotely
(E) Substantially
Ans : (E)
14. SWITCHING
(A) Prolonging
(B) Withdrawing
(C) Continuing
(D) Exchanging
(E) Alternating
Ans : (B)
15. INCENTIVES
(A) Deterrents
(B) Preventions
(C) Disadvantages
(D) Prohibitions
(E) Liability
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 16–25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence, the letter of that part will be the answer. If there is no error, mark (E) as the answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
16. Sheela had to travel all the way back (A) / when she remembered that (B) / she had forgot to take (C) / important documents with her. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
17. The party is holding a meeting (A) / in order to begin the (B) / painful and difficult process (C) / of rethink its political strategy. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
18. The only bad thing about (A) / these flowers are the (B) / pollen which causes (C) / allergy in many people. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
19. Nobody in the bus (A) / offered to give their seat (B) / to the elderly lady who had to (C) / travel a long distance. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
20. This is the only organization (A) / which could somehow continue (B) / to making profits (C) / in the face of recession. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
21. Many more would have died (A) / if they hadn’t received (B) / the timely helping from (C) / the relief team. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
22. A man along with (A) / his wife and two children (B) / were rescued with the help (C) / of an army helicopter. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
23. In the past two decades, (A) / preventive measures have (B) / drastically reduced the (C) / occurrence of polio in children. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
24. Neither the ministers (A) / nor the intelligence sources (B) / was aware of the coup (C) / being planned in the country. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
25. Certain amounts of stress (A) / at work is natural but (B) / it is important that one learns (C) / to keep it in the right proportion. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.
26. An NGO is working towards providing free education to the girl child so that every girl can stand on their own feet.
(A) stands on their own
(B) stand on her own
(C) stand in her own
(D) stand on their own’s
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)
27. The animal rescuers anesthetized the dog which had been with great pain after having met with an accident.
(A) which had been in
(B) which is being with
(C) who had been in
(D) who has been at
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)
28. In its final decision, the court ruled that all the allegations levelled for the accused were false and baseless.
(A) allegation levelled against the
(B) allegations level against that
(C) allegations levelled against the
(D) allegations levelled with that
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)
29. If I leave early from home, I could have made it on time to the airport.
(A) If I would leave early
(B) Had I leave earlier
(C) If I could left early
(D) had I left earlier
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)
30. Thousands of fire-fighters were deployed at the factory when a fire suddenly broke out due to a short circuit.
(A) on the factory when
(B) at the factory while
(C) at that factory when
(D) in the factory while
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 31–35) Rearrange the following sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 to make a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions which follow :
1. This decision on which force is to be maximized lies with every individual.
2. This belief comes from the fact that science reflects the social forces prevailing at a particular time.
3. We must maximize the constructive forces of science and the destructive ones should be minimized.
4. Contrary to popular belief, the greatest enemy of mankind is not science but war.
5. She/he must understand that science can only help us in providing ways to reach at either war or peace and is actually not responsible for causing these.
6. During peaceful times science is constructive and during war, science is perverted to destructive ends.
31. Which of the following sentence should be the SIXTH (LAST) after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)
32. Which of the following sentence should be the THIRD after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 3
Ans : (A)
33. Which of the following sentence should be the FIFTH after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)
34. Which of the following sentence should be the FIRST after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)
35. Which of the following sentence should be the SECOND after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 36–45) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.
Asteroids are rocks and debris which are the leftovers of the construction of our solar system. Most are in a belt, which …(36)… between Mars and Jupiter. However, the gravitational influence of the giant planets, like Jupiter, or an impact by a comet can knock these large rocks out of their orbit, thus hurling them …(37)… the Earth. Many bodies have struck Earth in the …(38)…, and a widely accepted theory blames the impact of an asteroid for the exinction of dinosaurs about 65 million years ago. The scale of such a disaster can be understood by the example of a relatively small-size asteroid strike in Siberia in early 20th century which …(39)… more than half a million acres of forest.
However, what relieves the common man of the …(40)… regarding asteroid impact is the fact that many scientific groups are dedicated towards tracking the asteroid paths and orbit all around the year. With advanced equipments and technology, they can predict any upcoming danger much in …(41)…. According to them the chances of finding such an asteroid crossing Earth in this or the next five generation’s lifetime is only one in thousands. Even if such an asteroid is found out, there will be …(42)… of time to track it, measure its orbit precisely, and plan a system for …(43)… it from its orbit away from that of the Earth’s. There will be no great hurry, and no great panic. It would be a project for all the world’s nations to take part in. It could be a globally unifying event. Because it will be …(44)… long before it actually hits the Earth. It probably would take only a small measure such as chemical rockets, or perhaps an atomic explosion to divert it from a threatening path.
Thus, in short, it can be said that though the impact would pose enormous risk to all living forms on Earth, the odds of it occurring within our lifetimes is very …(45)… and it is unnecessary to run around believing that the sky is falling.
36. (A) rotates
(B) appears
(C) strikes
(D) encircle
(E) exists
Ans : (A)
37. (A) past
(B) around
(C) towards
(D) against
(E) inside
Ans : (C)
38. (A) future
(B) centuries
(C) earliest
(D) past
(E) history
Ans : (D)
39. (A) extinct
(B) devastated
(C) wasted
(D) shrivelled
(E) fell
Ans : (B)
40. (A) apprehension
(B) expectation
(C) distrust
(D) sufferings
(E) hesitation
Ans : (A)
41. (A) sooner
(B) accuracy
(C) advance
(D) time
(E) distance
Ans : (C)
42. (A) dearth
(B) loss
(C) most
(D) lack
(E) plenty
Ans : (E)
43. (A) blocking
(B) deflecting
(C) avoiding
(D) destroying
(E) changing
Ans : (B)
44. (A) experienced
(B) harmful
(C) perceived
(D) noticed
(E) devastating
Ans : (C)
45. (A) low
(B) large
(C) narrow
(D) high
(E) few
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 46–50) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
46. After having been friends for more than a decade, they had a ……… last year and have not ……… each other ever since.
(A) fight, talked
(B) argument, met
(C) dispute, seen
(D) quarrel, admired
(E) difference, introduced
Ans : (C)
47. The workers, several of ………had complained about their low wages earlier have now ……… to move the court for the labour rights.
(A) who, indicated
(B) whom, decided
(C) which, threatened
(D) them, resolved
(E) number, warmed
Ans : (B)
48. The hutment dwellers were jubilant when the government ……… an apartment to each of them at ……… rates.
(A) demolished, fast
(B) announced, less
(C) provided, high
(D) acquired, low
(E) promised, subsidised
Ans : (E)
49. The organization was deeply …………by difficulties a decade ago but the new CEO brought many ……… changes in it and took it to a new high.
(A) indebted, necessary
(B) plagued, vital
(C) coping, more
(D) hurt, critical
(E) shaken, inevitable
Ans : (B)
50. The prime minister who is ……… in his holiday home at the moment said that he was very ……… by the news of India winning the world cup.
(A) visiting, happy
(B) residing, obliged
(C) intruding, dejected
(D) staying, pleased
(E) resting, cheerful
Ans : (D)
IDBI BANK EXAM 2009
I.D.B.I Bank (Executive) Exam 2009
(Held on 13-12-2009)
English Language : Solved Paper
Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
As the price of gasoline spiked to record highs in 2007 and 2008, interest in alternatives to fossil fuels, and electric transportation in particular, also spiked. It raised, however, many questions about the true environmental impact of electric cars.
The electrtic car is being upheld as an ethical, green, nifty and cheap alternative to the carbon dioxideemitting automobiles clogging city roads around the world today. Though electric cars are not a popular choice, the industry’s future plans are riding high on the hope that on improving certain factors, (which are currently deficient) such as, effective marketing, a growing public awareness of the need for clean air and the increase in demand, the prices would eventually be driven down.
However, battery powered vehicles may still fail to completely replace liquid fuel-fed ones but with more electric and hybrid vehicles on the road, there is greater scope for a makeover in the way environment is impacted by the automobiles. However, if the power to charge the battery-operated vehicle is to be sourced from grids using conventional coal-fired power plants, the electric car wouldn’t really be all that green. These would actually cause an increase in demand on the power plant’s energy production causing them to produce more power and thus more pollution, unless greener ways of energy production are used. But as of now the bulk of the electricity used to charge the batteries of electric vehicles is generated by fossil fuel burning power stations and only 12% by the clean methods. Also, the amount of energy used by coal fired power stations to create the electricity to recharge electric vehicles make them half as efficient as diesel cars. Recent studies indicate that carbon emissions may reduce only by an insignificant level even if there is a sudden surge in demand for electric cars.
Other factors making the rechargeable cars less efficient include the amount of electricity lost in the journey between the coal fired power stations which generate it and the point where it recharges the car, and the energy lost by the faulty firstgeneration batteries and motors. The researchers calculated that of the energy burned in a power station, only a quarter reaches an electric car after leakages and losses along the supply chain, giving the vehicle an energy efficiency score of 24%. This amounts to more than 75% energy loss much before the car is even put on ignition. A modern diesel engine, by contrast, achieves 45% efficiency. This suggests that if fossil fuels are to be burned, it is much more efficient to do it within the engine of a vehicle rather than at a power station and then try to send it via the National Grid, where a lot of energy is wasted, and finally to store it in a battery which in itself might leak power.
Electric cars may still survive since the car’s emissions would be far less polluting than those that run on fossil fuels. With very minor emissions of sulphur caused when the batteries charge and discharge, when compared to current emissions standards, electric cars are zero emissions. The gasoline engine by comparison does not fare as well. Gasoline and diesel fuel burned in internal combustion engines for transportation account for 54 per cent of nitrites of oxygen, 89 per cent of carbon monoxide and 28 per cent of carbon dioxide pollution produced. Switching to electric vehicles drops those percentages to zero, and only slightly increases sulphur emissions. So even when the power plants burn dirty fuel, the amount of pollution is less than an oil burning car would create. And this picture is improving all the time, as clean energy sources are added to the grid.
The goal should be to make more electric cars with greater incentive for consumers and producers, as well as feeding grids with more power from renewable resources–as per the objectives stated in the numerous plans on Climate Changes. And till this goal is achieved, the debate whether controlling emission at a few power plants is more convenient than controlling emission at millions of tailpipes is, would continue.
1. Why does the author fear that the electric cars may eventually not be very eco-friendly ?
(A) The exhausts of these cars emit as much pollutants as the oil fuelled cars
(B) Electric cars, though have lesser quantity of other emissions, the sulphur emissions will rise substantially, thus harming the environment
(C) The electricity for charging the batteries of these cars comes from power plants using pollution causing fossil fuels
(D) Only (A) and (C)
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
2. What, according to the author, needs to be done in order to make electric cars more ecofriendly ?
(A) Encouraging powerplants to generate electricity using the eco-friendly methods
(B) Setting certain emission standards for electric cars as is done for the oil consuming cars
(C) Controlling Sulphur emissions which are one of the major contributors to environmental pollution at present
(D) Making provisions for easy availability of recharging sockets at all the places
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
3. Which of the following suggestions does the author make in order to popularize the electric cars ?
(A) Discontinue the use of fuel powered cars completely
(B) Optimize the benefits of using electric cars to both consumers as well as the producers
(C) To supply grids with renewable sources of energy for the production of electricity
(D) Only (B) and (C)
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
4. Why, according to the author, are electric cars not a popular option among the people ?
(1) The recharging points are not easily available everywhere.
(2) Effective marketing of the eco-friendly cars has been lacking.
(3) Lack of appreciation among the people for the need of unpolluted air.
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) All (1), (2) and (3)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
5. Why, according to the author, may the electric cars survive despite all their current deficiencies ?
(1) Electric cars will be subsidised and thus would prove to be cost efficient to the buyers.
(2) An increasing number of grids are shifting to alternate forms of energy production.
(3) In the future, incentives would be provided to those driving electric cars.
(4) Pollution caused by the electric cars is far less as compared to the fossil fuel driven cars.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (3) and (4)
(C) Only (2) and (4)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
6. Which of the following can be the most appropriate title for the passage ?
(A) The failure of the power grids
(B) The rise and fall of cars using fossil fuels
(C) The adverse effects of pollution caused by the power grids
(D) The growing popularity of the electric cars
(E) Why eco-friendliness of electric cars is a fiction at present
Ans : (D)
7. Which of the following can be inferred from the given passage?
(A) Electric car may completely replace the fossil fuel powered cars one day
(B) Electric cars have brought about a drastic improvement in the pollution levels at present
(C) Electric cars have universally been accepted as the environment friendly cars
(D) All (A), (B) and (C) are true
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
8. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in context of the given passage ?
(A) Nearly three-fourth of the total energy generated for powering electric cars is wasted
(B) The interest in electric cars increased during the last year when most of the power grids shifted to clean sources of fuel
(C) Electric car engines do not produce by carbon emissions
(D) There would not be any noticeable improvement in the pollution level if the oil burning cars are shifted to electric cars at present
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
9. Why, according to the author, is the efficienty of the electric cars low even before they actually hit the roads ?
(1) Alot of energy is lost during the transit of electricity fromthe grid to the recharge point.
(2) The manufacturing cost of the electric cars is much higher than that of the other cars.
(3) The batteries and the motors of the electric cars are still relatively new and waste a lot of power.
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (2)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 10–12) Choose the word / group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
10. PICTURE
(A) Situation
(B) Photograph
(C) Representation
(D) Art work
(E) Idea
Ans : (A)
11. FEEDING
(A) Eating
(B) Supplying
(C) Consuming
(D) Encouraging
(E) Nourishing
Ans : (B)
12. SURGE
(A) Alteration
(B) Modification
(C) Intensification
(D) Increase
(E) Evolution
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 13–15) Choose the word/group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
13. SLIGHTLY
(A) Adequately
(B) Miserly
(C) Certainly
(D) Remotely
(E) Substantially
Ans : (E)
14. SWITCHING
(A) Prolonging
(B) Withdrawing
(C) Continuing
(D) Exchanging
(E) Alternating
Ans : (B)
15. INCENTIVES
(A) Deterrents
(B) Preventions
(C) Disadvantages
(D) Prohibitions
(E) Liability
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 16–25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence, the letter of that part will be the answer. If there is no error, mark (E) as the answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
16. Sheela had to travel all the way back (A) / when she remembered that (B) / she had forgot to take (C) / important documents with her. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
17. The party is holding a meeting (A) / in order to begin the (B) / painful and difficult process (C) / of rethink its political strategy. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
18. The only bad thing about (A) / these flowers are the (B) / pollen which causes (C) / allergy in many people. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
19. Nobody in the bus (A) / offered to give their seat (B) / to the elderly lady who had to (C) / travel a long distance. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
20. This is the only organization (A) / which could somehow continue (B) / to making profits (C) / in the face of recession. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
21. Many more would have died (A) / if they hadn’t received (B) / the timely helping from (C) / the relief team. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
22. A man along with (A) / his wife and two children (B) / were rescued with the help (C) / of an army helicopter. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
23. In the past two decades, (A) / preventive measures have (B) / drastically reduced the (C) / occurrence of polio in children. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
24. Neither the ministers (A) / nor the intelligence sources (B) / was aware of the coup (C) / being planned in the country. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
25. Certain amounts of stress (A) / at work is natural but (B) / it is important that one learns (C) / to keep it in the right proportion. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.
26. An NGO is working towards providing free education to the girl child so that every girl can stand on their own feet.
(A) stands on their own
(B) stand on her own
(C) stand in her own
(D) stand on their own’s
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)
27. The animal rescuers anesthetized the dog which had been with great pain after having met with an accident.
(A) which had been in
(B) which is being with
(C) who had been in
(D) who has been at
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)
28. In its final decision, the court ruled that all the allegations levelled for the accused were false and baseless.
(A) allegation levelled against the
(B) allegations level against that
(C) allegations levelled against the
(D) allegations levelled with that
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)
29. If I leave early from home, I could have made it on time to the airport.
(A) If I would leave early
(B) Had I leave earlier
(C) If I could left early
(D) had I left earlier
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)
30. Thousands of fire-fighters were deployed at the factory when a fire suddenly broke out due to a short circuit.
(A) on the factory when
(B) at the factory while
(C) at that factory when
(D) in the factory while
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 31–35) Rearrange the following sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 to make a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions which follow :
1. This decision on which force is to be maximized lies with every individual.
2. This belief comes from the fact that science reflects the social forces prevailing at a particular time.
3. We must maximize the constructive forces of science and the destructive ones should be minimized.
4. Contrary to popular belief, the greatest enemy of mankind is not science but war.
5. She/he must understand that science can only help us in providing ways to reach at either war or peace and is actually not responsible for causing these.
6. During peaceful times science is constructive and during war, science is perverted to destructive ends.
31. Which of the following sentence should be the SIXTH (LAST) after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)
32. Which of the following sentence should be the THIRD after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 3
Ans : (A)
33. Which of the following sentence should be the FIFTH after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)
34. Which of the following sentence should be the FIRST after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)
35. Which of the following sentence should be the SECOND after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 36–45) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.
Asteroids are rocks and debris which are the leftovers of the construction of our solar system. Most are in a belt, which …(36)… between Mars and Jupiter. However, the gravitational influence of the giant planets, like Jupiter, or an impact by a comet can knock these large rocks out of their orbit, thus hurling them …(37)… the Earth. Many bodies have struck Earth in the …(38)…, and a widely accepted theory blames the impact of an asteroid for the exinction of dinosaurs about 65 million years ago. The scale of such a disaster can be understood by the example of a relatively small-size asteroid strike in Siberia in early 20th century which …(39)… more than half a million acres of forest.
However, what relieves the common man of the …(40)… regarding asteroid impact is the fact that many scientific groups are dedicated towards tracking the asteroid paths and orbit all around the year. With advanced equipments and technology, they can predict any upcoming danger much in …(41)…. According to them the chances of finding such an asteroid crossing Earth in this or the next five generation’s lifetime is only one in thousands. Even if such an asteroid is found out, there will be …(42)… of time to track it, measure its orbit precisely, and plan a system for …(43)… it from its orbit away from that of the Earth’s. There will be no great hurry, and no great panic. It would be a project for all the world’s nations to take part in. It could be a globally unifying event. Because it will be …(44)… long before it actually hits the Earth. It probably would take only a small measure such as chemical rockets, or perhaps an atomic explosion to divert it from a threatening path.
Thus, in short, it can be said that though the impact would pose enormous risk to all living forms on Earth, the odds of it occurring within our lifetimes is very …(45)… and it is unnecessary to run around believing that the sky is falling.
36. (A) rotates
(B) appears
(C) strikes
(D) encircle
(E) exists
Ans : (A)
37. (A) past
(B) around
(C) towards
(D) against
(E) inside
Ans : (C)
38. (A) future
(B) centuries
(C) earliest
(D) past
(E) history
Ans : (D)
39. (A) extinct
(B) devastated
(C) wasted
(D) shrivelled
(E) fell
Ans : (B)
40. (A) apprehension
(B) expectation
(C) distrust
(D) sufferings
(E) hesitation
Ans : (A)
41. (A) sooner
(B) accuracy
(C) advance
(D) time
(E) distance
Ans : (C)
42. (A) dearth
(B) loss
(C) most
(D) lack
(E) plenty
Ans : (E)
43. (A) blocking
(B) deflecting
(C) avoiding
(D) destroying
(E) changing
Ans : (B)
44. (A) experienced
(B) harmful
(C) perceived
(D) noticed
(E) devastating
Ans : (C)
45. (A) low
(B) large
(C) narrow
(D) high
(E) few
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 46–50) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
46. After having been friends for more than a decade, they had a ……… last year and have not ……… each other ever since.
(A) fight, talked
(B) argument, met
(C) dispute, seen
(D) quarrel, admired
(E) difference, introduced
Ans : (C)
47. The workers, several of ………had complained about their low wages earlier have now ……… to move the court for the labour rights.
(A) who, indicated
(B) whom, decided
(C) which, threatened
(D) them, resolved
(E) number, warmed
Ans : (B)
48. The hutment dwellers were jubilant when the government ……… an apartment to each of them at ……… rates.
(A) demolished, fast
(B) announced, less
(C) provided, high
(D) acquired, low
(E) promised, subsidised
Ans : (E)
49. The organization was deeply …………by difficulties a decade ago but the new CEO brought many ……… changes in it and took it to a new high.
(A) indebted, necessary
(B) plagued, vital
(C) coping, more
(D) hurt, critical
(E) shaken, inevitable
Ans : (B)
50. The prime minister who is ……… in his holiday home at the moment said that he was very ……… by the news of India winning the world cup.
(A) visiting, happy
(B) residing, obliged
(C) intruding, dejected
(D) staying, pleased
(E) resting, cheerful
Ans : (D)
(Held on 13-12-2009)
English Language : Solved Paper
Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
As the price of gasoline spiked to record highs in 2007 and 2008, interest in alternatives to fossil fuels, and electric transportation in particular, also spiked. It raised, however, many questions about the true environmental impact of electric cars.
The electrtic car is being upheld as an ethical, green, nifty and cheap alternative to the carbon dioxideemitting automobiles clogging city roads around the world today. Though electric cars are not a popular choice, the industry’s future plans are riding high on the hope that on improving certain factors, (which are currently deficient) such as, effective marketing, a growing public awareness of the need for clean air and the increase in demand, the prices would eventually be driven down.
However, battery powered vehicles may still fail to completely replace liquid fuel-fed ones but with more electric and hybrid vehicles on the road, there is greater scope for a makeover in the way environment is impacted by the automobiles. However, if the power to charge the battery-operated vehicle is to be sourced from grids using conventional coal-fired power plants, the electric car wouldn’t really be all that green. These would actually cause an increase in demand on the power plant’s energy production causing them to produce more power and thus more pollution, unless greener ways of energy production are used. But as of now the bulk of the electricity used to charge the batteries of electric vehicles is generated by fossil fuel burning power stations and only 12% by the clean methods. Also, the amount of energy used by coal fired power stations to create the electricity to recharge electric vehicles make them half as efficient as diesel cars. Recent studies indicate that carbon emissions may reduce only by an insignificant level even if there is a sudden surge in demand for electric cars.
Other factors making the rechargeable cars less efficient include the amount of electricity lost in the journey between the coal fired power stations which generate it and the point where it recharges the car, and the energy lost by the faulty firstgeneration batteries and motors. The researchers calculated that of the energy burned in a power station, only a quarter reaches an electric car after leakages and losses along the supply chain, giving the vehicle an energy efficiency score of 24%. This amounts to more than 75% energy loss much before the car is even put on ignition. A modern diesel engine, by contrast, achieves 45% efficiency. This suggests that if fossil fuels are to be burned, it is much more efficient to do it within the engine of a vehicle rather than at a power station and then try to send it via the National Grid, where a lot of energy is wasted, and finally to store it in a battery which in itself might leak power.
Electric cars may still survive since the car’s emissions would be far less polluting than those that run on fossil fuels. With very minor emissions of sulphur caused when the batteries charge and discharge, when compared to current emissions standards, electric cars are zero emissions. The gasoline engine by comparison does not fare as well. Gasoline and diesel fuel burned in internal combustion engines for transportation account for 54 per cent of nitrites of oxygen, 89 per cent of carbon monoxide and 28 per cent of carbon dioxide pollution produced. Switching to electric vehicles drops those percentages to zero, and only slightly increases sulphur emissions. So even when the power plants burn dirty fuel, the amount of pollution is less than an oil burning car would create. And this picture is improving all the time, as clean energy sources are added to the grid.
The goal should be to make more electric cars with greater incentive for consumers and producers, as well as feeding grids with more power from renewable resources–as per the objectives stated in the numerous plans on Climate Changes. And till this goal is achieved, the debate whether controlling emission at a few power plants is more convenient than controlling emission at millions of tailpipes is, would continue.
1. Why does the author fear that the electric cars may eventually not be very eco-friendly ?
(A) The exhausts of these cars emit as much pollutants as the oil fuelled cars
(B) Electric cars, though have lesser quantity of other emissions, the sulphur emissions will rise substantially, thus harming the environment
(C) The electricity for charging the batteries of these cars comes from power plants using pollution causing fossil fuels
(D) Only (A) and (C)
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
2. What, according to the author, needs to be done in order to make electric cars more ecofriendly ?
(A) Encouraging powerplants to generate electricity using the eco-friendly methods
(B) Setting certain emission standards for electric cars as is done for the oil consuming cars
(C) Controlling Sulphur emissions which are one of the major contributors to environmental pollution at present
(D) Making provisions for easy availability of recharging sockets at all the places
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
3. Which of the following suggestions does the author make in order to popularize the electric cars ?
(A) Discontinue the use of fuel powered cars completely
(B) Optimize the benefits of using electric cars to both consumers as well as the producers
(C) To supply grids with renewable sources of energy for the production of electricity
(D) Only (B) and (C)
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
4. Why, according to the author, are electric cars not a popular option among the people ?
(1) The recharging points are not easily available everywhere.
(2) Effective marketing of the eco-friendly cars has been lacking.
(3) Lack of appreciation among the people for the need of unpolluted air.
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) All (1), (2) and (3)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
5. Why, according to the author, may the electric cars survive despite all their current deficiencies ?
(1) Electric cars will be subsidised and thus would prove to be cost efficient to the buyers.
(2) An increasing number of grids are shifting to alternate forms of energy production.
(3) In the future, incentives would be provided to those driving electric cars.
(4) Pollution caused by the electric cars is far less as compared to the fossil fuel driven cars.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (3) and (4)
(C) Only (2) and (4)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
6. Which of the following can be the most appropriate title for the passage ?
(A) The failure of the power grids
(B) The rise and fall of cars using fossil fuels
(C) The adverse effects of pollution caused by the power grids
(D) The growing popularity of the electric cars
(E) Why eco-friendliness of electric cars is a fiction at present
Ans : (D)
7. Which of the following can be inferred from the given passage?
(A) Electric car may completely replace the fossil fuel powered cars one day
(B) Electric cars have brought about a drastic improvement in the pollution levels at present
(C) Electric cars have universally been accepted as the environment friendly cars
(D) All (A), (B) and (C) are true
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
8. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in context of the given passage ?
(A) Nearly three-fourth of the total energy generated for powering electric cars is wasted
(B) The interest in electric cars increased during the last year when most of the power grids shifted to clean sources of fuel
(C) Electric car engines do not produce by carbon emissions
(D) There would not be any noticeable improvement in the pollution level if the oil burning cars are shifted to electric cars at present
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
9. Why, according to the author, is the efficienty of the electric cars low even before they actually hit the roads ?
(1) Alot of energy is lost during the transit of electricity fromthe grid to the recharge point.
(2) The manufacturing cost of the electric cars is much higher than that of the other cars.
(3) The batteries and the motors of the electric cars are still relatively new and waste a lot of power.
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (2)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 10–12) Choose the word / group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
10. PICTURE
(A) Situation
(B) Photograph
(C) Representation
(D) Art work
(E) Idea
Ans : (A)
11. FEEDING
(A) Eating
(B) Supplying
(C) Consuming
(D) Encouraging
(E) Nourishing
Ans : (B)
12. SURGE
(A) Alteration
(B) Modification
(C) Intensification
(D) Increase
(E) Evolution
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 13–15) Choose the word/group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
13. SLIGHTLY
(A) Adequately
(B) Miserly
(C) Certainly
(D) Remotely
(E) Substantially
Ans : (E)
14. SWITCHING
(A) Prolonging
(B) Withdrawing
(C) Continuing
(D) Exchanging
(E) Alternating
Ans : (B)
15. INCENTIVES
(A) Deterrents
(B) Preventions
(C) Disadvantages
(D) Prohibitions
(E) Liability
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 16–25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence, the letter of that part will be the answer. If there is no error, mark (E) as the answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
16. Sheela had to travel all the way back (A) / when she remembered that (B) / she had forgot to take (C) / important documents with her. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
17. The party is holding a meeting (A) / in order to begin the (B) / painful and difficult process (C) / of rethink its political strategy. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
18. The only bad thing about (A) / these flowers are the (B) / pollen which causes (C) / allergy in many people. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
19. Nobody in the bus (A) / offered to give their seat (B) / to the elderly lady who had to (C) / travel a long distance. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
20. This is the only organization (A) / which could somehow continue (B) / to making profits (C) / in the face of recession. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
21. Many more would have died (A) / if they hadn’t received (B) / the timely helping from (C) / the relief team. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
22. A man along with (A) / his wife and two children (B) / were rescued with the help (C) / of an army helicopter. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
23. In the past two decades, (A) / preventive measures have (B) / drastically reduced the (C) / occurrence of polio in children. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
24. Neither the ministers (A) / nor the intelligence sources (B) / was aware of the coup (C) / being planned in the country. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
25. Certain amounts of stress (A) / at work is natural but (B) / it is important that one learns (C) / to keep it in the right proportion. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.
26. An NGO is working towards providing free education to the girl child so that every girl can stand on their own feet.
(A) stands on their own
(B) stand on her own
(C) stand in her own
(D) stand on their own’s
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)
27. The animal rescuers anesthetized the dog which had been with great pain after having met with an accident.
(A) which had been in
(B) which is being with
(C) who had been in
(D) who has been at
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)
28. In its final decision, the court ruled that all the allegations levelled for the accused were false and baseless.
(A) allegation levelled against the
(B) allegations level against that
(C) allegations levelled against the
(D) allegations levelled with that
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)
29. If I leave early from home, I could have made it on time to the airport.
(A) If I would leave early
(B) Had I leave earlier
(C) If I could left early
(D) had I left earlier
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)
30. Thousands of fire-fighters were deployed at the factory when a fire suddenly broke out due to a short circuit.
(A) on the factory when
(B) at the factory while
(C) at that factory when
(D) in the factory while
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 31–35) Rearrange the following sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 to make a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions which follow :
1. This decision on which force is to be maximized lies with every individual.
2. This belief comes from the fact that science reflects the social forces prevailing at a particular time.
3. We must maximize the constructive forces of science and the destructive ones should be minimized.
4. Contrary to popular belief, the greatest enemy of mankind is not science but war.
5. She/he must understand that science can only help us in providing ways to reach at either war or peace and is actually not responsible for causing these.
6. During peaceful times science is constructive and during war, science is perverted to destructive ends.
31. Which of the following sentence should be the SIXTH (LAST) after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)
32. Which of the following sentence should be the THIRD after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 3
Ans : (A)
33. Which of the following sentence should be the FIFTH after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)
34. Which of the following sentence should be the FIRST after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)
35. Which of the following sentence should be the SECOND after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 36–45) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.
Asteroids are rocks and debris which are the leftovers of the construction of our solar system. Most are in a belt, which …(36)… between Mars and Jupiter. However, the gravitational influence of the giant planets, like Jupiter, or an impact by a comet can knock these large rocks out of their orbit, thus hurling them …(37)… the Earth. Many bodies have struck Earth in the …(38)…, and a widely accepted theory blames the impact of an asteroid for the exinction of dinosaurs about 65 million years ago. The scale of such a disaster can be understood by the example of a relatively small-size asteroid strike in Siberia in early 20th century which …(39)… more than half a million acres of forest.
However, what relieves the common man of the …(40)… regarding asteroid impact is the fact that many scientific groups are dedicated towards tracking the asteroid paths and orbit all around the year. With advanced equipments and technology, they can predict any upcoming danger much in …(41)…. According to them the chances of finding such an asteroid crossing Earth in this or the next five generation’s lifetime is only one in thousands. Even if such an asteroid is found out, there will be …(42)… of time to track it, measure its orbit precisely, and plan a system for …(43)… it from its orbit away from that of the Earth’s. There will be no great hurry, and no great panic. It would be a project for all the world’s nations to take part in. It could be a globally unifying event. Because it will be …(44)… long before it actually hits the Earth. It probably would take only a small measure such as chemical rockets, or perhaps an atomic explosion to divert it from a threatening path.
Thus, in short, it can be said that though the impact would pose enormous risk to all living forms on Earth, the odds of it occurring within our lifetimes is very …(45)… and it is unnecessary to run around believing that the sky is falling.
36. (A) rotates
(B) appears
(C) strikes
(D) encircle
(E) exists
Ans : (A)
37. (A) past
(B) around
(C) towards
(D) against
(E) inside
Ans : (C)
38. (A) future
(B) centuries
(C) earliest
(D) past
(E) history
Ans : (D)
39. (A) extinct
(B) devastated
(C) wasted
(D) shrivelled
(E) fell
Ans : (B)
40. (A) apprehension
(B) expectation
(C) distrust
(D) sufferings
(E) hesitation
Ans : (A)
41. (A) sooner
(B) accuracy
(C) advance
(D) time
(E) distance
Ans : (C)
42. (A) dearth
(B) loss
(C) most
(D) lack
(E) plenty
Ans : (E)
43. (A) blocking
(B) deflecting
(C) avoiding
(D) destroying
(E) changing
Ans : (B)
44. (A) experienced
(B) harmful
(C) perceived
(D) noticed
(E) devastating
Ans : (C)
45. (A) low
(B) large
(C) narrow
(D) high
(E) few
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 46–50) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
46. After having been friends for more than a decade, they had a ……… last year and have not ……… each other ever since.
(A) fight, talked
(B) argument, met
(C) dispute, seen
(D) quarrel, admired
(E) difference, introduced
Ans : (C)
47. The workers, several of ………had complained about their low wages earlier have now ……… to move the court for the labour rights.
(A) who, indicated
(B) whom, decided
(C) which, threatened
(D) them, resolved
(E) number, warmed
Ans : (B)
48. The hutment dwellers were jubilant when the government ……… an apartment to each of them at ……… rates.
(A) demolished, fast
(B) announced, less
(C) provided, high
(D) acquired, low
(E) promised, subsidised
Ans : (E)
49. The organization was deeply …………by difficulties a decade ago but the new CEO brought many ……… changes in it and took it to a new high.
(A) indebted, necessary
(B) plagued, vital
(C) coping, more
(D) hurt, critical
(E) shaken, inevitable
Ans : (B)
50. The prime minister who is ……… in his holiday home at the moment said that he was very ……… by the news of India winning the world cup.
(A) visiting, happy
(B) residing, obliged
(C) intruding, dejected
(D) staying, pleased
(E) resting, cheerful
Ans : (D)